well as of your last post I'm not going to continue responding. You've
demonstrsted your ignorance with astounding loyalty to it, and I think
you're really only interested in arguing, which I am not
Well, bye. I find it interesting that, right after you claim to have evidence of your position, you run away when asked for it.
Unlike you, I have read the bible many times, which is why I was able to
show you where you are incorrect and reference scriotures that are
showing a far earlier monotheistic stance.
Except that you've not done that even once. Also, you've no idea how many times I've read the Bible. Don't make ignorant claims.
I also know, for sure, that the Greek phrase, "ho huios tou anthropou" is only found in the gospels. Okay?
Yes, it would be truly amazing if a Greek phrase were found in something written in not-Greek. That was never the point. You claimed the phrase "son of man" was unique to Jesus and only appeared in the NT. That is demonstrably untrue. Changing your argument after the fact is a weasel move.
The bible wasn't written in English and your insistence otherwise is showing your ignorance
I never said it was. Only an idiot would claim that or attempt to claim I said it.
That Greek phrase, and it's expressed meaning in Greek, IS ONLY FOUND IN THE GOSPELS.
Yes, I would expect the Greek form of a phrase to be written in Greek. In the Hebrew form, it would be written in Hebrew, exactly as it was in the OT, predating Jesus and not unique to the NT.
now I'm done posting on the topic. If you still ensist otherwise please
feel free to contact any New Testament scholar of your choosing to
inform them they are wrong and you are right.
Why would I contact a New Testament scholar to "ensist" (sic) that you are not done posting on this topic and they are wrong about that? How would I even know what their opinion on you posting on this topic is?