dorayakii, WELCOME to this thread . Those are great points you raise. In every instance where the "rule" or "principle" should apply, it is stated in the Scriptures that it should apply.
Nowhere do we find that the rule applies where there is no indication of its application. For instance, in Daniel 9 a Hebrew word is translated "weeks" but clearly refers to years. Does this mean there was nothing specifically in the text that would indicate that undersatnding? No.
Strong's has this to say regarding the Hebrew word used for these weeks:
Properly passive participle of H7650 as a denominative of H7651; literally sevened, that is, a week (specifically of years): - seven, week.
(bold and underline, mine)
Even here, when the "weeks" are actually "weeks of years" the text clearly states that. In the case of Daniel 4, nothing indicates "years of years." It simply isn't there. Again, thank you very much for your post. Excellent points.
AuldSoul