My boyfriend pointed something out to me a while ago. When I would be relaying a story to him or something like that I would commonly use the word 'evidently'. For example and evidently Mr Johns said this. It used to really grate on his nerves. He explained to me that the correct word to use is apparantly. Evidently should be used when I have evidence to support my statement.
Since then I've noticed my JW mum says it a lot. I've also noticed it a bit on here from my fellow exJWs.
Which leads me to thinking... Where did we pick this up from. My sinister mind suggests that perhaps we picked this up from our JW days. I have no way of supporting this statement but I'm going to throw it out there.... Perhaps in their publications they commonly use the word 'evidently' when stating something. Perhaps to make theirselves sound so much more convincing? When in fact they have no evidence to support their statement. It could be a clever manipulation technique...
Like I said - this is just me surmising. But it is something I've been pondering over...