I was raised Catholic, so I was a bit surprised when I attended the memorial last year with my JW friend and the speaker was recounting the last supper. He quoted Mark 14:
22 And as they continued eating, he took a loaf, said a blessing, broke it and gave it to them, and said: “Take it, this means my body.” 23 And taking a cup, he offered thanks and gave it to them, and they all drank out of it. 24 And he said to them: “This means my ‘blood of the covenant,’ which is to be poured out in behalf of many.
Of course, the "means" jumped out at me because I'm used to the Catholic tradition of transubstantiation - the belief that the wine and bread literally become Christ's blood and body, as I believe is supported by more traditional translations, such as the KJV:
14:22 And as they did eat, Jesus took bread, and blessed, and brake it, and gave to them, and said, Take, eat: this is my body.
14:23 And he took the cup, and when he had given thanks, he gave it to them: and they all drank of it.
14:24 And he said unto them, This is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many.
So, anyways, the transubstantiation isn't the issue here, it's the translation of this passage by the watchtower. I'm curious to know how they justify using "means" instead of "is." It seems like the greek would be pretty clear. The KJV version clearly says the blood is shed, but WT says it is poured out.
Could anyone shine some light on this issue? I realize that drinking Christ's blood would destroy their no blood stance, so how do they handle the translation of this?