How many times does "Jehovah" spuriously appear in the NT? (page 2)

Forscher

By the way,
Thanks AuldSoul for the two passages where neither of the two criteria the NWT translation committee claims to use justifys the insertion of the divine name. I think I'l make a note of them.
Forscher

bennyk

Two points:

The 01. Dec. 2004 [?] Watchtower made reference to Jason BeDuhn's book Truth in Translation &c, which they claimed gave a favourable review of the New World Translation. And it did. However, in the Appendix it also included a (scathing) consideration of the interpolation of the word "Jehovah" in the New Testament. I guess the Society's scholars didn't read to the end of the book...

The Society also admitted to altering the New Testament. The Forward of the 1981 Englisch Edition of the New World Translation states on page 6: "An effort was put forth to bring about even greater consistency in the renderings of the related parts of the Holy Scriptures, such as in harmonizing with the original Hebrew readings the readings of quotations made in the Christian Greek Scriptures." This despite the fact that such quotations are often demonstrably taken verbatim from the Septuaginta -- NOT from the Hebrew text of the Old Testament.

DannyHaszard

237

Hellrider

AuldSoul, try saying that to a jw, and the answer will be (with a selfrighteous question-mark all over the face): "Why? Do you have anything against Jehovah?"

moggy lover

Of the 237 occasions that the Freddy "restored" the name "Jehovah" to the NT text, the impression is created that, apart from a few minor exceptions, the "J" sources are direct quotes from some reference to the OT in which the Heb original had "Yahweh". In fact the opposite is true. Of the 237 citations, only 112 are OT references [47.2%] while the majority [52.8%] ie 125 citations, are merely a Freddy insert.

The earliest "J" is J2, published in 1385, which is cited 16 times. The most popular is J7, cited 181 times. Despite its published antipathy against the Erasmus TR text, the WTS has carefully avoided to reveal that all the "J" references are quotations of this text. Evidently we must be made to understand that a text in its Greek original is faulty, but becomes pristine in a Hebrew translation!! [The WT society often reminds us that the TR is "faulty" "defective" etc. this is primarily because of what is termed "the Johannine Gloss of 1Jo 5:7,8 Se for instance the "Reasoning" book pg 423]

I would have had a greater respect for Freddy's "scholarship" had he the guts to use "Jehovah" at 1Cor 12:3, where J14 uses the Tetragrammaton

Cheers

MsMcDucket

I find this topic very interesting. This is what they used to get me into the "truth". They said that other religions weren't using his name and King James had it taken out of the bible, because he wanted the people to worship him. Therefore, Jehovah's name needed to be vindicated.

Oh man, what rubbish!

Ignorance is not bliss!

TheListener

When I was a dub I totally believed, without every checking, that all 237 times Jehovah was used in the NT were direct quotes from the OT. I accepted that the original writers would have copied the text correctly. Once I faded and found out the truth about the insertion of Jehovah in the NT I was blown away.

It was as if the WTS sunk to a new low for me and I couldn't believe it. I knew they were wrong doctrinally but to be dishonest - that was a new low which by now I realize they regularly sink to.

Jeff Schwemm had a thread on this some time ago with some really great info. I couldn't find it but maybe somebody (or js) could.

Here is a website I've used for research: http://www.europa.com/~lynnlund/

Van Gogh

I agree with Thelistener. This to me too is one of the main frauds of the WTS.

Supporting moggy lover, have a look at this webpage on the J-versions that were not used to insert “Jehovah” into the NWT:

“Significantly, the Divine Name appears in the J-versions many more times than those recorded in the Kingdom Interlinear. These reproductions show the Divine Name in J 8 at Hebrews 1:10; in J 13 at 1 Peter 2:3, and in J 14 at both 1 Peter 2:3 and 1 Corinthians 12:3. No reference to these occurrences of the Tetragrammaton appears in the Kingdom Interlinear. Why?”

Source: http://www.catholic-forum.com/members/popestleo/hiding.html

This webpage also explains why the 1969 edition of the Kingdom Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures could be a much more sought after edition than the 1985 one.

I have a question if I may.

Many OT passages using the Divine Name are quoted in the NT as referring to Jesus (and wrongly translated back to “Jehovah” in the NWT).

Is this further proof for some sort of Trinity, i.e. Yahweh the Father/Jesus the Son/Holy Spirit? Or are Yahweh and Jesus the same as opposed to The Father within such Trinity, i.e. The Father/Jesus the Son-Yahweh/Holy Spirit?

VG

AuldSoul

Is this further proof for some sort of Trinity, i.e. Yahweh the Father/Jesus the Son/Holy Spirit? Or are Yahweh and Jesus the same as opposed to The Father within such Trinity, i.e. The Father/Jesus the Son-Yahweh/Holy Spirit?

Van Gogh,

It isn't further evidence of the existence of such a Trinity, but it is further evidence that the nature of God was understood to be a Trinity by early Christians. Not necessarily by the First Century Christians. But at least by early Christians.

Respectfully,
AuldSoul

Van Gogh

Auld,

I’m talking about scriptural proof of the actual biblical nature of The Divine according to the way the First Century NT equates Christ with the OT Yahweh, even legitimizing Christ by referring to OT passages on Yahweh as messianic prophesies (as opposed to mere evidence as to how early Christians might or might not have perceived God or developed the Trinity doctrine).

Hence: if Christ=Yahweh, how does this fit into a Trinity? VG

How many times does "Jehovah" spuriously appear in the NT?

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