I'm sorry I haven't got adequate documentation at hand, but if I were you I would look to the recent commentaries by M.S. Sweeney (1996), J. Blenkinsopp (2000) and B.S. Childs (2001), and perhaps some older ones like O. Kaiser's (1974) and H. Wildberger's (1991). There is an important paradigm shift in OT studies in general, and in Isaiah studies in particular, which you must be aware of: most 19th and 20th-century scholarship focused on the "original meaning" of the "authentic" (in the case of Isaiah, 8th-century BC) fragments which could be isolated from later additions and redactional seams. A new school of Bible scholars (here represented by Sweeney in particular) has more or less given up this archaeological approach, concentrating on the book as it stands, i.e. as a post-exilic composition, and considering upstream traditions as the "pre-history" of the text rather than the text itself. That being said, there are at least two obvious literary units in chapter 2, v. 2-5 (= Micah 4:1-3, which is probably dependent on Isaiah) and 6-22 which constitute two distinct poems.
I'm not sure what part of the JW interpretation you intend to argue against, but one very debatable issue imo is the NW translation of be'acharith ha-yâmim (v. 2) as "in the final part of the days". This is close to the LXX en tais eschatais hèmerais, "in the last days," but the Hebrew text requires no more than "in the future" ("in days to come," NRSV). The text itself offers no clear articulation of the "positive future" depicted in v. 2-5 and the dreadful "day of Yhwh" in v. 6-22, but this is a common problem in prophetic literature which constantly juxtaposes hope and threat.