by KAYTEE 7 Replies latest watchtower bible
This is something that has always puzzled me
Genesis 10 v 5 - "...the population was spread about in their lands according to its tongues"
Genesis 11 v 1 - "...now all the earth continued to be of one tongue and one set of words"
(both taken from the NWT)
Any ideas re: this apparent contradiction.
Kaytee
Here is the JW answer to your question-
***
w78 7/15 p. 32 Questions From Readers***Questions
From Readers?
Genesis 11:1 says that before the confusion of tongues at Babel, all the earth spoke one language; yet, earlier, Genesis 10:5 seems to suggest that various tongues already existed. How can this be understood?Speaking of Noah’s descendants through his grandson Javan, Genesis 10:5 says: "From these the population of the isles of the nations was spread . . . , each according to its tongue, according to their families, by their nations."
Genesis chapter 10 presents what is commonly known as the "Table of the Nations." It lists 70 families or nations descending from Noah’s sons, giving some indication of where these eventually spread to and settled. Of course, Moses recorded this centuries after the Flood and the confusion of languages at Babel. So he was in position to bring together in what is now Genesis chapter 10 details of how things worked out over the centuries.
After Genesis chapter 10 gives the details of the "Table of the Nations," chapter 11 takes up the narrative or chronological history with Babel and shows how it was that many languages came about and why peoples spread over the globe.—Gen. 11:1-9.
Thus the references in the 10th chapter to various languages are not to be understood as meaning that these developed prior to the confusion of languages at Babel. (Gen. 10:5, 20, 31, 32) But those tongues were later found among Noah’s descendants, whose lineage is provided in that chapter.
Literary criticism would point out that the Babel story in chapter 11 and the "table of nations" in chapter 10 come from different sources (traditionally called "Yahwist" and "Priestly" respectively). They do not formally contradict each other, although the table of nations obviously ignores the Babel story.
This was not the kind of thing that could bother the redactors/editors of Genesis, who were able to juxtapose way more contradictory stories (e.g. Genesis 1--2:4a/2:4b--3).
OnthewayOut
I read that and at first it seemed a load of waffle, then I realised that it was a quote from the WT and this confirmed my original thoughts !!
They (the WT) didn't really explain anything
But thanks for the research - well done
Kaytee
Narkissos
I'm in the process of reading the book "Who wrote the bible" - Richard Elliott Friedman, and it is beginning to put a new light on some of the scriptures. It implies that different people actually wrote the first 5 books of the bible and not Moses. With these thoughts in mind, a lot of apparent contradictions are beginning to be explained.
When I've finished with the book, I'll be handing it over to KAYTEE, as the info in it is very enlightening.
Twink
You are welcome
OnthewayOut
I read that and at first it seemed a load of waffle, then I realised that it was a quote from the WT and this confirmed my original thoughts !!
They (the WT) didn't really explain anything
No arguement here, they often don't really explain anything. It's just important to them that
the WORD OF GOD never has contradictions. Some of their explanations really bend logic.
This one is not so bad.
I had a question on this when I first began "reading the Bible" several years ago. Did a little checking and still no concrete answers, but here's some of what I found. Gen 10:1 speaks of the history of Noah and his sons. 10:5 says the population spread "according to its tongue". Strongs #3956 says it is language, speech etc. 11:1 uses "language". Strongs #8193 says it means talk, speech, words. 11:1 also says all the "earth". Strongs #776 says earth, land, country, field, etc.
So I wonder if the entire world had the same language, as we think of language today, or was it their area?
Little Bo Peep
It implies that different people actually wrote the first 5 books of the bible and not Moses. With these thoughts in mind, a lot of apparent contradictions are beginning to be explained.
Yes, and it is interesting to note that such a hyposthesis was not invented by "higher critics" in the nineteenth century; as many JWs have come to believe. Jewish scholars several centuries prior, were having difficulty in trying to reconcile many of the linguistic anomalies and historical anachronisms that were present in the book of Genesis. Evidence began to be uncovered that the Torah was certainly not written by one author; namely Moses. Many scholars as early as the eleventh century were beginning to accept the idea that the Torah had multiple writers and redactors.
