Who can tell us of the correct translation of Psalm 45: 6?
Did the WTBCS (C for ****) change the OT verse to agree with their interpretation of Hebrews 1? Does anybody know a Rabbi who could tell you??
HB
WHO KNOWS OT HEBREW? GRRRR!!
by hamsterbait 6 Replies latest watchtower bible
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Euphemism
It's been too long and I don't remember any of the scholarship around interpretation of this verse; however I should note that the Jewish Publication Society translates the verse:
Thy throne given of G-d is for ever and ever; a sceptre of equity is the sceptre of thy kingdom.
Not the same as the Witnesses' translation, but not the same as the standard Christian translation, either.
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Narkissos
The Hebrew text is ambiguous, and the NWT ("God is your throne" / "God, your God") is one possibility among several.
The NWT footnote on v. 6 reads:
Or, "Your throne is of God; Your throne of God is."
which is also the option of the (French) Jerusalem Bible.
This leaves out the most common reading "Your throne, o God..." (so NRSV, but the next verse is still "God, your God") which is grammatically admissible although less probable in the original context imo.
Hebrews 1:8f follows the Greek Septuagint which is also ambiguous, but can more easily be understood as a vocative in both instances ("Your throne, o God" / "O God, your God").
Only the context of Hebrews makes the latter explanation slightly more likely (cf. the vocative kurie, "o Lord" in v. 10), although not necessary.
I think the NWT can be blamed only for not mentioning the vocative option in its footnotes (either in Psalms or in Hebrews). But its translation cannot be ruled out either.
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Death to the Pixies
Only the context of Hebrews makes the latter explanation slightly more likely (cf. the vocative kurie, "o Lord" in v. 10), although not necessary.
I had never thought of the above before, I always took vs. 9 (that is why God, your God) as making the Orthodox translation of vs. 8, slightly less likely.
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jwswat
not sure what you want to know exactly, but i read OT hebrew. the scripture as translated reads as follows
psalms 45:6
"Your throne, O God (is) forever and ever; a sceptor of uprightness is the sceptor of your kingdom.
that is exactly what the hebrew says when translated into english.
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Narkissos
Welcome jwswat
"Your throne, O God (is) forever and ever; a sceptor of uprightness is the sceptor of your kingdom.
that is exactly what the hebrew says when translated into english
In the text there is neither "O" nor any other marker for a vocative; from the syntax 'elohim may just as well be a predicate, or even the subject -> "Your throne (is/are) god(s) (which is/are?) forever and ever".
The parallelism doesn't clear the issue up completely, but at the semantic level it makes sense in an ode to a king: "Your throne" = "the scepter of your kingdom" = your rule, being qualified by (1) divine permanence and (2) justice.
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hamsterbait
I brought up this question, as the average Dub would say the Psalm is talking about jehovah.
However in Hebrews Paul is making the point that jehovah says these words to JESUS. Same with the other quotes in Heb 1 - In the OT a witless would say they apply to Jehovah - yet paul says they are talking about Jesus.
HB