IS THERE EVEN A SINGLE, VERIFIABLE EXAMPLE OF.........?

by Terry 16 Replies latest jw friends

  • Terry
    Terry

    ...THE FULFILLMENT OF A PROPHECY MADE IN THE OLD TESTAMENT?

    http://www.infidels.org/library/magazines/tsr/1991/1/1land91.html
  • Cold Creek Swimmer
    Cold Creek Swimmer

    Are you not aware of all of the assembly parts that fulfilled these prophecies? Not so much anymore, but those ones with Rutherford were definitely fulfillment of Bible prophey. Just ask them, they'll tell you. It makes perfect sense to think that a prophecy given 1500 years before the present system of assemblies was even conceived could actually be true. What else could these #'s possibly mean?

    CCS

  • Mad
    Mad

    The Messiah,Fall of Israel & Babylon- for 2 quickies for you to deny!

    Mad

  • Mad
    Mad

    Sooooooooooooooooooooo, TRUE, CC!

    Mad

  • Mad
    Mad

    Terry- the Reign of Solomon is the period of which the prophecy came true; however, Solomon- as with most Israelis, corrupted his faith. Regardless of what the slanted site you linked us to said, the Jews DID have to at least keep the Mosaic Law to have the blessings- and they didn't for very long!

    Mad

  • Terry
    Terry
    Terry- the Reign of Solomon is the period of which the prophecy came true; however, Solomon- as with most Israelis, corrupted his faith.

    Meaning what, exactly?

  • Terry
    Terry
    Regardless of what the slanted site you linked us to said, the Jews DID have to at least keep the Mosaic Law to have the blessings- and they didn't for very long!
    To circumvent obvious contradictions that result when Yahweh's promises are compared to biblical history recorded later, inerrantists contend that the land promises made to the Israelites were conditional on their good behavior, but there is no support for that dodge in the Bible. In Deuteronomy 9:3-7 , another prophetic passage relating to the land promise, specific notice was taken of the fact that the Israelites of the then present generation were themselves undeserving of the land but that it would be given to them for the sake of the promises made to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob:

    Know therefore this day, that Yahweh thy God is he who goeth over before thee as a devouring fire; he will destroy them, and he will bring them down before thee: so shalt thou drive them out, and make them to perish quickly, as Yahweh hath spoken unto thee.

    Speak not thou in thy heart, after that Yahweh thy God hath thrust them out from before thee, saying, For my righteousness Yahweh hath brought me in to possess this land; whereas for the wickedness of these nations Yahweh doth drive them out from before thee.Not for thy righteousness, or for the uprightness of thy heart, dost thou go in to possess their land; but for the wickedness of these nations Yahweh thy God doth drive them out from before thee, AND THAT HE MAY ESTABLISH THE WORD WHICH YAHWEH SWARE UNTO THY FATHERS, TO ABRAHAM, TO ISAAC, AND TO JACOB. Know therefore, that Yahweh thy God giveth thee not this good land to possess it for thy righteousness; for thou art a stiff-necked people.

    So here is another clear statement. God was not giving the land to the Israelites because of their righteousness; in fact, he considered them a stiff-necked, undeserving people. (See also Exodus 33:1-6 .) He was giving the land to them because of the unconditional promise that he had made to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. Unless he did this, he would have reneged on a promise made to the patriarchs with no strings attached, ( Gen. 12:7 ; 13:14-16 ).

    The unconditional nature of Yahweh's land promise was restated in Leviticus 26:42-45 :

  • under_believer
    under_believer

    The Witnesses hang their OT prophecy-fulfillment hats on Daniel's supposed prediction of Cyrus, and of course everything that they, and in fact the NT writers, say was pointing towards Jesus.

  • stillajwexelder
    stillajwexelder

    do you mean a typical fulfillment Terry, or an anti-typical one?

  • SixofNine
    SixofNine

    IS THERE EVEN A SINGLE, VERIFIABLE EXAMPLE OF THE FULFILLMENT OF A PROPHECY MADE IN THE OLD TESTAMENT?

    This was just about the first question I asked myself once I realized that the WTBTS was a house of cards and that I would no longer be part of it.

    To someone fed a steady diet of bible from infancy, it boggles the mind to do some research and realize that the answer to that question is "no".

    However, it also boggles my mind that so many ex-JW's fail to ask (and answer) that rather obvious question. It's just a tad foundational, don'tcha think?

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