Hi Hamsterbait,
Just caught your post but I am in a hurry tonight.
Briefly put, there is no hint of irony in the Greek text of Matthew 24:34 which has a very strong negation, ou mè+ aorist subjunctive, further reinforced by the introduction, Amèn legô humin.
But of course what a WT writer can make of it is beyond my imagination.
As we're on it, I have a couple of questions myself which I can't elaborate on right now, but I just throw them for others to pick up:
Since the WT seems to maintain two fulfillments of Matthew 24//, hence two distinct generations, how and when did the first generation "pass away"? I suspect the answer will be along the line of the "great apostasy" following the death of the apostolic generation, yet by the 95/07 WT definitions, a generation is no longer terminated by the death of the people who were there at the beginning (terminus a quo). More generally, how can such a new-WT-style "generation" ever "pass away"? But of course the Gospel saying is meaningless if it can't.
Hasn't the new key phrase for the identification of the "generation" to the "anointed," "all these things," been previously used to indicate that there was more than one fulfillment (because "all these things" did notoccur in the 33-70 period)? If so, and if a first generation (whether of "wicked" Jews or anointed Christians) did "pass away" before "all these things" occurred, doesn't that make the saying void, at least the first time?
The only strategical interest I could figure for the WT in shifting the "generation" to the "anointed" would have been to posit one, not two, generation(s) of "anointed" running from 33 to the "end". This would have been philologically impossible of course, but maintaining two generations with only onecomplete fulfillment ("all these things") seems even "more impossible" from the perspective of inner logic.