The belief once was that if your witness mate insisted on oral sex, you could scripturally divorce them.
I always wondered just HOW a witness could/would INSIST on Oral Sex from their mate. Hold a gun to their head maybe? Threaten to pull their hair out? What exactly?
And, what did the innocent one say to the elders when they asked the question...." why did you give in". In other words, why wasn't the innocent one also responsible for performing the act? If a strange man came along and INSISTED that a witness woman gave him oral sex and never threatened her with her life and she gave it to him.......wouldn't she be guilty of adultry?
What would be the diffrence if a womans own husband insists on oral sex? She is innocent in this case and can scripturally divorce him ( back when this was the policy), yet if a man who isn't her hubby insists on it and she complies, she gets DFed or at least some heavy reproof.
Gumsexually confused