When was the Mosaic law abolished?

digderidoo

Luke 16:16... "the law and the prophets were until John" 29CE

or

Colossians 2:14..NWT(sorry).."by nailing it to the torture stake" 33CE

Paul

yknot

Perhaps we look at the full context of the scripture, relevent cross-references, and alternate translations.

Luke 16:16

NWT- 16 "The Law and the Prophets were until John. From then on the kingdom of God is being declared as good news, and every sort of person is pressing forward toward it.

NASB- 16 " ( A ) The Law and the Prophets were proclaimed until John; since that time ( B ) the gospel of the kingdom of God has been preached, and everyone is forcing his way into it.

Luke 16:16 references Matt 11:13

NWT & the NASB read exactly the same in this verse 13 For all, the Prophets and the Law, prophesied until John;

Col 2:14

NWT- 14 and blotted out the handwritten document against us, which consisted of decrees and which was in opposition to us; and He has taken it out of the way by nailing it to the torture stake.

NASB- 14 having canceled out ( A ) the certificate of debt consisting of decrees against us, which was hostile to us; and ( B ) He has taken it out of the way, having nailed it to the cross.

Col 2:14 references Gal 3:13, Heb 9:15, and 1Pet 2:24

Gal 3:13

NWT- 13 Christ by purchase released us from the curse of the Law by becoming a curse instead of us, because it is written: "Accursed is every man hanged upon a stake."

NASB 13 Christ ( A ) redeemed us from the curse of the Law, having become a curse for us--for it is written, " ( B ) CURSED IS EVERYONE WHO HANGS ON ( C ) A TREE"--

Heb 9:15

NWT - 15 So that is why he is a mediator of a new covenant, in order that, because a death has occurred for [their] release by ransom from the transgressions under the former covenant, the ones who have been called might receive the promise of the everlasting inheritance.

NASB - 15 For this reason ( A ) He is the ( B ) mediator of a ( C ) new covenant, so that, since a death has taken place for the redemption of the transgressions that were committed under the first covenant, those who have been ( D ) called may ( E ) receive the promise of ( F ) the eternal inheritance.

1Peter 2:24

NWT- 24 He himself bore our sins in his own body upon the stake, in order that we might be done with sins and live to righteousness. And "by his stripes YOU were healed."

NASB- 24 and He Himself ( A ) bore our sins in His body on the ( B ) cross, so that we ( C ) might die to sin and live to righteousness; for ( D ) by His wounds you were ( E ) healed.

Hmm seems that the Mosaic law is phased out rather then cutting short. In order for mosaic prophesy to be fulfilled Jesus has to appear and die faithful to be concecrated as King. So John is the begining of the transition by hailing the Messiah has arrived, and Christ's death puts the final nail in the coffin of the Mosaic law

It seems this 3½ years is a popular timeline in the Bible.

digderidoo

Hmm seems that the Mosaic law is phased out rather then cutting short. In order for mosaic prophesy to be fulfilled Jesus has to appear and die faithful to be concecrated as King. So John is the begining of the transition by hailing the Messiah has arrived, and Christ's death puts the final nail in the coffin of the Mosaic law

Interesting point yknot.

I have a JW pointing out Matthew 18:17 to me, Jesus is speaking to his disciples, saying to treat the wrongdoer as "a man of the nations"

His argument is that the disciples were Jewish believers, who were under law not to associate with Gentiles, therefore upholding JW disfellowshipping policy. My counter argument has been that the disciples were not under the Mosaic law according to Luke 16:16, that Jesus examples showed that he spoke to people of the nations, therefore his words at Matthew 18:17 cannot mean to shun the individual.

It seems to me that it didn't happen overnight, seems to be phased out as you say.

Paul

yknot

(Matthew

18:17)17 If he does not listen to them, speak to the congregation. If he does not listen even to the congregation, let him be to you just as a man of the nations and as a tax collector.

Well other translations subsitute 'Man of the Nations' with...

NIV- a pagan

NASB- a Gentile

YLT- as the heathen man

HCSB- an unbeliever

Darby's agrees with the NWT

KJV- heathen man

Looking at the above I would say 'Unbeliever' is the most accurate in todays vocabulary.

Beyond that sounds like he is trying to exalt himself as biblical know-it-all!..... feel free to take him back down to the humility rung!

Octarine Prince

John followed the Law.

Jesus fulfilled the Law.

It was phased out, and Jah put up with those who clung to it for quite a while, as we can see from the subject of several of the apostle Paul's letters.

Deputy Dog

dig

Mat 5:17

"Do not think that I came to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I did not come to abolish, but to fulfill. 18 "For truly I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away,not the smallest letter or stroke shall pass away from the Law, until all is accomplished.

digderidoo

So according to that dd are we still under the law? That scripture seems to contradict others, Colossians 2:14, Hebrews ch9 and ch10 for instance.

Paul

Deputy Dog

digderidoo

Maybe this passage will help

Romans 3:19 Now we know that whatever the Law says, it speaks to those who are under the Law, that every mouth may be closed, and all the world may become accountable to God; 20 because by the works of the Law no flesh will be justified in His sight; for through the Law comes the knowledge of sin. 21 But now apart from the Law the righteousness of God has been manifested, being witnessed by the Law and the Prophets, 22even the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all those who believe; for there is no distinction; 23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24being justified as a gift by His grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus; 25 whom God displayed publicly as a propitiation in His blood through faith. This was to demonstrate His righteousness, because in the forbearance of God He passed over the sins previously committed; 26 for the demonstration, I say, of His righteousness at the present time, that He might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus. 27 Where then is boasting? It is excluded. By what kind of law? Of works? No, but by a law of faith. 28For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of the Law. 29 Or is God the God of Jews only? Is He not the God of Gentiles also? Yes, of Gentiles also, 30 since indeed God who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised through faith is one. 31Do we then nullify the Law through faith? May it never be! On the contrary, we establish the Law.

Deputy Dog

digderidoo

We can't keep the law. This is why we needed Christ to fulfill it for us. It's faith in what He has done that saves us.

yknot

What it the difference between abolish and fulfillment? To abolish is to destroy something completely, to fulfill means to bring to a natural end.

In OT prophecy we don't only have the Messiah arrival foreseen but also a 'new covenant'.

(Jeremiah

31:31-34)31 "Look! There are days coming," is the utterance of Jehovah, "and I will conclude with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah a new covenant; 32 not one like the covenant that I concluded with their forefathers in the day of my taking hold of their hand to bring them forth out of the land of Egypt, ‘which covenant of mine they themselves broke, although I myself had husbandly ownership of them,’ is the utterance of Jehovah." 33 "For this is the covenant that I shall conclude with the house of Israel after those days," is the utterance of Jehovah. "I will put my law within them, and in their heart I shall write it. And I will become their God, and they themselves will become my people." 34 "And they will no more teach each one his companion and each one his brother, saying, ‘KNOW Jehovah!’ for they will all of them know me, from the least one of them even to the greatest one of them," is the utterance of Jehovah. "For I shall forgive their error, and their sin I shall remember no more."

(Hebrews

8:6-13)6 But now [Jesus] has obtained a more excellent public service, so that he is also the mediator of a correspondingly better covenant, which has been legally established upon better promises. 7 For if that first covenant had been faultless, no place would have been sought for a second; 8 for he does find fault with the people when he says: "‘Look! There are days coming,’ says Jehovah, ‘and I will conclude with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah a new covenant; 9 not according to the covenant that I made with their forefathers in [the] day of my taking hold of their hand to bring them forth out of the land of Egypt, because they did not continue in my covenant, so that I stopped caring for them,’ says Jehovah." 10 "‘For this is the covenant that I shall covenant with the house of Israel after those days,’ says Jehovah. ‘I will put my laws in their mind, and in their hearts I shall write them. And I will become their God, and they themselves will become my people. 11 "‘And they will by no means teach each one his fellow citizen and each one his brother, saying: "Know Jehovah!" For they will all know me, from [the] least one to [the] greatest one of them. 12 For I shall be merciful to their unrighteous deeds, and I shall by no means call their sins to mind anymore.’" 13 In his saying "a new [covenant]" he has made the former one obsolete. Now that which is made obsolete and growing old is near to vanishing away.

Keep in mind that at the Sermon on the Mount Jesus hadn't yet completely fulfilled the prophecy. So until Jesus had fully fullfilled the prophecy the Israelites were still under the law.... as his convenant was not yet fully enforced.

When was the Mosaic law abolished?

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