look at the the prophecies concerning Jesus and how all the books (66) are connected with one another even though they were written (as far as we are aware) by 40 different authors over the course of 4,000 or so years.
Are these texts really prophecies of Jesus per se -- or are they simply passages from the OT that were utilized in the NT in composing and explaining the story of Jesus? The early Christian use of these passages frequently disregard the original meaning or context of the text -- the "prophetical" meaning is not present in the original text but only arises through its later eisegetical reinterpretation (as is often the case in Jewish midrash).
For example, Matthew 2:17 refers to Herod's slaying of male infants as fulfilling Jeremiah 31:15-16 when in fact the latter passage is simply one of many statements in Jeremiah about the Babyonian devastation of Judah and the captivity...it only has messianic prophetic significance because a later writer wanted to invest it with that meaning. The text is not saying that Rachel (= the ancestor mother of the tribes of Benjamin and Joseph) is weeping because some madman king Herod killed off all her descendents, or even all the male children of hers. It clearly implies that her children are "no more" not because they are all dead but because they are all in captivity in foreign lands...the next verse says that she can now stop weeping because her children are coming home from the enemy country. This is an entirely different concept than how the author of Matthew uses the verse. Another example is the reference in Matthew 27:7-10 to Judas fulfilling Jeremiah's prophecy. Here the author is consciously basing his story on an OT text, which he quotes as Jeremiah's prophecy. The problem is that no such passage exists in Jeremiah or anywhere else in the OT. Essentially the author has conflated two separate readings of Zechariah 11:13 and combined them with a few motifs from Jeremiah 18-19 and 32, freely rewrote the whole thing as a Jeremianic prophecy, and then claimed that the event happened in order to fulfill this prophecy that the author of Matthew composed years later.
For example, in Psalm 22:16 (which was written before crucifixion was even a thought and stoning was the capital punishment in use at the time) it mentions piercing hands and feet. Well, what happened to Jesus?
This is an excellent example of how a "prophetic" interpretation is read into the text (at least since the time of Justin Martyr, who cited it as a prophecy of Jesus) without regard to what the passage actually says. "They have pierced my hands and feet" is not quite an accurate translation of the Hebrew k'rw ydy w-rgly, the sense of which is closer to "they dug into my hands and feet" (with the root krh "to dig"). Similarly, the LXX uses a form of orussein which again pertains more to digging or burrowing into the earth (cf. Matthew 21:33, 25:18, Mark 12:1), and the Latin fathers who utilized the text (including Tertullian, Cyprian, Lactantius, Augustine, and Cassiodorus) used the word foderunt "they have dug" as well. The metaphorical meaning of this phrase is appreciated once the identity of the "they" is established: the ones who are "digging into my hands and feet" are the klbym `dt "crowd of dogs" surrounding the speaker mentioned in the same verse, i.e. the assembly of the wicked is imagined as a pack of dogs savagely “digging” at the psalmist's hands and feet with their claws and teeth. This image is entirely different from that of piercing one’s hands and feet on a cross. That the psalmist had the former in mind is clearly indicated in v. 20 when he asks to be rescued "from the paw of the dog" (m-yd klb).