Its interesting that Jesus doesn't use God's name in any of the prayers by him that are recorded. One would think that he would have used God's name all the time, but nothing in the Bible exists to support this. We have to make assumptions beyond what is written.
Hello again Path. :)
Do a little reasearch on the NT in any encyclopedia, and look up the origins of the divine name, YHVH, or JHVH. You will find that supersticious translators are at fault for not scribing the divine name.
Also please note that Jesus was trying to sanctify the NAME of his father, and I KNOW it was not LORD. The closest approximation is the Jewish Yahweh or the english Jehovah. Also please look at the front of any bible you read that uses LORD in the OT, and you will see that anywhere you see LORD, you are seeing a substitution of Jehovah or Yahweh (i.e. the divine name), except maybe a few places in certain 'versions', e.g. KJV.
Look in the new testament in the gospels and in other parts for places where references were made to writings in the old testament. The quote is made from a place that DID render the divine name, and you can tell because the OT reference will read LORD.
Many instances of this confused me in the KJV NT, leaving me wondering why God would write: 'and The Lord said to my lord...'. After doing the reference check in the OT of the SAME BIBLE, I found that it was quoting an instance said to David: 'and The LORD said to my lord...'. This made NO SENSE to me until I read the front of the Bible and realized that LORD was substituted for YHWH. I then read the OT statement: 'and The YHWH said to my lord'.
Then I was left with "What the heck is 'The YHWH?'". To make a long story short, after studying some Koine Greek and a little Hebrew, I realized that the 'The' was inserted in the OT text because of the indistinct noun LORD, and was never in the original text. I then realized that the statement in the OT should read: 'and YHWH said to my lord', properly using a name in the english language. I then read the quote as Jesus would have read it in the days of his ministry, and I realized that he indeed DID use the divine name.
After a little research, I discovered that many of the earliest MS text that compose our new testament were burned in the 1st or 2nd century after Christ's resurrection, and we based our book on NEWER texts, as most of the burned copies were destroyed. After learning about the supersticious scholars who refused to scribe the divine name, I realized that this is probably what happened with the NT texts that we use today. After I found out that this was the VERY REASON for the WTBTS' rendering of the nonexistant divine name in the NT texts of the NWT, I realized I was reading a slanted translation when I was reading the KJV or other dirivitives. (NIV, ASB, etc.)
-ianao