Im researching the societys position on 607, and so far i got two questions i havent been able to find the answer to. It is about the following scripture:
In the third year of the kingship of Je?hoi′a?kim the king of Judah, Neb?u?chad?nez′zar the king of Babylon came to Jerusalem and proceeded to lay siege to it. 2 In time Jehovah gave into his hand Je?hoi′a?kim the king of Judah and a part of the utensils of the house of the [true] God, so that he brought them to the land of Shi′nar to the house of his god; and the utensils he brought to the treasure-house of his god.
3 Then the king said to Ash′pe?naz his chief court official to bring some of the sons of Israel and of the royal offspring and of the nobles, 4 children in whom there was no defect at all, but good in appearance and having insight into all wisdom and being acquainted with knowledge, and having discernment of what is known, in whom also there was ability to stand in the palace of the king; and to teach them the writing and the tongue of the Chal?de′ans. 5 Furthermore, to them the king appointed a daily allowance from the delicacies of the king and from his drinking wine, even to nourish them for three years, that at the end of these they might stand before the king.
6 Now there happened to be among them some of the sons of Judah, Daniel, Han?a?ni′ah, Mish′a?el and Az?a?ri′ah. 7 And to them the principal court official went assigning names. So he assigned to Daniel [the name of] Bel?te?shaz′zar; and to Han?a?ni′ah, Sha′drach; and to Mish′a?el, Me′shach; and to Az?a?ri′ah, A?bed′ne?go. (daniel 1:1-7)
1) Why is it so important that Daniel was not taken captive by nebuchanezzar in king Jehoiakims 3 year (corresponding to nebuchadnezzars 1 year) that they are willing to bend scripture? (daniel 1:1-2)
2) The only real argument i have found for the societys position is that daniel 1:5 says daniel had to be with the king for 3 years before he could 'stand before him'. We later learn he interpret dreams in king nebuchanezzars 2 year. (daniel 2:1). This is used to argue that daniel somehow used a strange system where he dated FROM jerusalems destruction. Personally, i think this is a pretty weak point, and i imediately think that perhaps neb pulled in daniel to interpret the dream before he had planned to (ie the 3 years had elapsed), however, i would like to get your point of view on this particular argument.
Thanks to anyone who wants to bite!