Was it 1914? That seems to be the impression that most people are getting from the recent change in understanding. However, the recent Watchtower article seems to contain some contradictions. Here is a quote:
"For example, consider our understanding of those who make up "this generation" mentioned by Jesus. (Read Matthew 24:32-34.) To what generation did Jesus refer? The article "Christ's Presence-What Does It Mean to You?" explained that Jesus was referring, not to the wicked, but to his disciples, who were soon to be anointed with holy spirit. Jesus' anointed followers, both in the first century and in our day, would be the ones who would not only see the sign but also discern its meaning-that Jesus "is near at the doors.""
This makes it sound like the generation also refers to the first century anointed. It doesn't mention the anointed that lived during the other centuries, but I assume they would also be included. This doesn't seem to fit with what follows:
"14 What does this explanation mean to us? Although we cannot measure the exact length of "this generation," we do well to keep in mind several things about the word "generation": It usually refers to people of varying ages whose lives overlap during a particular time period; it is not excessively long; and it has an end. (Ex. 1:6) How, then, are we to understand Jesus' words about "this generation"? He evidently meant that the lives of the anointed who were on hand when the sign began to become evident in 1914 would overlap with the lives of other anointed ones who would see the start of the great tribulation. That generation had a beginning, and it surely will have an end. The fulfillment of the various features of the sign clearly indicate that the tribulation must be near."
Now they bring in 1914. So which is it? Are they purposely being vague to accommodate future revisions? Could they be thinking about discarding the 1914 teaching now that their current understanding hints that it might be just the anointed since Jesus, without reference to a certain date.
I also wonder if this is officially a new understanding, with the governing body passing it with a two thirds majority. Or could it be viewed as a clarification of the existing understanding? Perhaps a governing body member just influenced the writing committee to express the way he understood the current doctrine. I recall that a governing body member was promoting this idea of the tag team generation in some of his talks, prior to this article coming out. I know it was discussed here, but I can't recall who it was.
I welcome your comments.