God's Name Discussion

by garyneal 55 Replies latest watchtower beliefs

  • possible-san
    possible-san

    garyneal.

    I do plan to stick with my original point in that the divine name was inserted 237 in the NT where it did not appear in the oldest manuscripts. He may try to get around it anyway he can but in the end he must either admit or deny that assertion.

    In their publications, it is written like this.

    *** it-2 p. 9 Jehovah ***
    Why is the divine name in its full form not in any available ancient manuscript of the Christian Greek Scriptures?

    *** na p. 23 God’s Name and the “New Testament” ***
    With the Christian Greek Scriptures, the “New Testament,” the situation is different. Manuscripts of the book of Revelation (the last book of the Bible) have God’s name in its abbreviated form, “Jah,” (in the word “Hallelujah”). But apart from that, no ancient Greek manuscript that we possess today of the books from Matthew to Revelation contains God’s name in full.

    So, if he has studied carefully, he knows that well.
    Their argument is that after they have consented to that well.

    So, even if you prove it, that is a "matter of course" for them, too.

    And, even if you win that argument, the Scriptures of the OT will come into their mind, and your explanation will not be accepted.

    possible

  • Chalam
    Chalam

    JWs are school in the first definition of the word name listed here

    Main Entry: 1 name Pronunciation: \ ' nam\ Function: noun Etymology: Middle English, from Old English nama; akin to Old High German namoname, Latin nomen, Greek onoma, onyma Date: before 12th century

    1 a : a word or phrase that constitutes the distinctive designation of a person or thing b: a word or symbol used in logic to designate an entity
    2 : a descriptive often disparaging epithet <called him names>
    3 a : reputation <gave the town a bad name> b : an illustrious record : fame <made a name for himself in golf> c : a person or thing with a reputation
    4 : family, clan
    5 : appearance as opposed to reality <a friend in name only>
    6 : one referred to by a name <praise his holy name>

    in the name of 1 : by authority of <open in the name of the law>
    2 : for the reason of : using the excuse of <called for reforms in the name of progress>

    However, biblically definition 3 is what God is talking about when He is describing His name. Here's a taster Exodus 33:19, Exodus 34:5-7

    Blessings,

    Stephen

  • possible-san
    possible-san

    Chalam.

    JWs are school in the first definition of the word name listed here

    I think that you cannot argue with them when you make a fool of Jehovah's Witnesses.

    First of all, for them, unlike me, English is their "native language."

    possible

  • inbetween
    inbetween

    Maybe you can ask:

    Do you believe the bible was preserved accurately to our time ? So that we have to take into consideration even each single word to understand the scriptures right ? (JW does this all the time, example: "abstain from blood", or "flee from fornication", etc, and then they ellaborate on those words)

    He most likely will say, yes Jehovah preserved his word, so we can rely on it today .

    Ok, so why was he not able to preserve his own name in there ?

    worst case answer: Well, he did, because he uses his modern day people to restore it again....

  • Black Sheep
    Black Sheep

    she went on about the Septuagint

    My folks try this too.

    What is the Setuagint?

    According to Wiki,

    The Septuagint (pronounced /'s?ptu?.?d??nt/), or simply "LXX", referred to in critical works by the abbreviation ,[1] is the Koine Greek version of the Hebrew Bible, translated in stages between the 3rd and 2nd Centuries BC in Alexandria.[2] It was begun by the third century BC and completed before 132 BC.[3]

    It isn't anything to do with whether, or not, the original Greek scriptures ever contained YHWH.

    Cheers

    Chris

  • Dogpatch
    Dogpatch

    It's so irrelevant. The Christians were technically a cult of Judaism that began to worship Jesus instead of the Father. They PURPOSELY wrote the old tribal god out of their Bible. They now worshipped their martyr, and applied hundreds of old Testament scriptures that applied to Jehovah, and NOW aopplied them to Jesus. Argue your hearts out on the details of the name, but you're missing the most primal and powerful point.

    Quoting from an article I wrote years ago:

    In the New World Translation, Exodus 3:14 is translated,

    "At this God said to Moses: `I SHALL PROVE TO BE WHAT I SHALL PROVE TO BE.' And he added: `This is what you are to say to the sons of Israel, "I SHALL PROVE TO BE" has sent me to you.'"

    The Watchtower Translating Committee was well aware that this verse is translated by most reputable scholars as "I AM THAT I AM," and that this verse is used to support the view that Jesus was claiming to be equal to Jehovah in John 8:58, when he said in answer to his identity and origin, "I AM" (Greek: ego eimi). In order to avoid all possibilities of this understanding, the Watchtower has used a `future tense' approach. Yet, Keil & Delitzsch, in their Commentary On The Old Testament (Vol. 1, p.74) say:

    If we seek for the meaning of (YHWH), the expression "Ehyeh asher ehyeh" in Ex. 3:14, is neither to be rendered "esomaios esomai" (Aq., Theodt.), "I shall be that I shall be" (Luther), nor "I shall be that which I will or am to be" (M. Baumgarten). Nor does it mean, "He who will be because He is Himself, the God of the future" (Hofmann). For in names formed from the third person imperfect, the imperfect is not a future, but an aorist. According to the fundamental signification of the imperfect, names so formed point out a person as distinguished by a frequently or constantly manifested quality, in other words, they express a distinctive characteristic. The Vulgate gives it correctly: "ego sum qui sum," "I am who I am."

    In the New Testament, Jesus and the disciples refer often to the name of God. The emphasis in the Hebrew understanding was not the actual pronunciation of the name, but in what the name implies; its authority and characteristics. The same is true in Exodus 3:13, where Moses asks God, "Indeed, when I come to the children of Israel and say to them, `The God of your fathers has sent me to you,' and they say to me, `What is His name?' what shall I say to them?" Yet, the Israelites knew God's name (see Gen. 26:25, 28:13), at least as far as its pronunciation. They were in reality inquiring into the nature expressed in that name.

    As Dr. Robert Countess points out in his book, The Jehovah 's Witnesses New Testament, on page 26,

    "If the Witnesses are to be a people of God's name, and if His name had been preserved in the Greek autographa in ancient Hebrew letters, then it seems reasonable to expect that pronunciation of His name would be preserved also."

    But such has not been the case. Rather, as we shall see soon, being a "people for His name" (since the coming of Christ) meant to carry the name of JESUS, not the name " Jehovah ."

    Did Jesus Use the Name?

    One of the Watchtower's main appeals:

    On one occasion, Jesus stood up in a synagogue and read a portion of the scroll of Isaiah. The section he read was what we today call Isaiah 61:1,2, where God's name appears more than once. (Luke 4:16-21) Would he have refused to pronounce the divine name there, substituting `Lord' or `God'? Of course not. That would have meant following the unscriptural tradition of the Jewish religious leaders. Yes, it would be most unreasonable to think that Jesus held back from using God's name, especially when he quoted from those portions of the Hebrew scriptures that contained it.
    The Divine Name, p. 15, 16

    There are at least two dogmatic assumptions and one false assumption in their argument. First of all, they assume that the tetragram was actually in the text that Jesus read. The Divine Name booklet, their reference Bible, and the Kingdom Interlinear all go to great lengths to point out that SOME of the earliest copies of the Septuagint (or LXX- the Greek translation of the Old Testament, used often by Jesus) had the YHWH written in Hebrew script wherever the Name occurred. Compared with the great number of manuscripts that do not have the tetragram, however, such texts are a minority. Further, there is simply no way of knowing if the scrolls Jesus read from had the tetragram in them or not. There were too many different kinds of translations in use in the first century. R. Longenecker, in his book, Biblical Exegesis in the Apostolic Period (p. 66) says that Jesus

    "at times engaged himself in textual selection among the various Aramaic, Hebrew and Greek versions then current."

    On page 60-61 of his book, Longenecker says regarding the quotations attributed to Jesus in the gospels:

    "The great majority are septuagintal in character. . . . In a few cases . . . it is the LXX reading, as against the reading of the M(asoretic) T(ext) or known Targums, that provide Jesus with the wording."

    Since the majority of Septuagint texts available today have no trace of the tetragram, the likelihood is great that he often quoted from texts which did not contain it.

    The second dogmatic assumption is that Jesus quoted literally from the texts. Even if the tetragram was in that particular scroll, that is no guarantee he read it word for word or pronounced the tetragram.

    For instance, consider Jesus' words in Luke 4:18, where he quotes from Isaiah 61:1. Although it generally matches the reading of the LXX (Septuagint), it is partly contrary to both the LXX and the MT (Masoretic Text), and partly agrees with the MT against the LXX. Additionally, Jesus adds a line from Isaiah 58:6 in his quotation. Another interesting insight is in the writings of Matthew. The Watchtower tries to develop the point that the gospel of Matthew was originally penned in Hebrew, and as such, must have contained the tetragram. Yet, although Matthew's citations are of the Masoretic, or existing Hebrew text, his quotations of Jesus' words are predominantly from the Septuagint, which most likely did not contain the tetragram. This indicates Jesus leaned towards the Septuagint, and perhaps even read the text in Greek!

    The third and false assumption made by the Watchtower is that the synagogues and the religious leaders would have tolerated his teaching in the synagogues or credit him by saying, "Teacher, you have spoken well," (Luke 20:37,38) after uttering the Divine Name. Historical records in the Mishnah as well as Josephus and other sources record the Jews as being loathe to allow the Name to be used, and certainly would not have tolerated it by any but the High Priest. Yet there remains absolutely no record of the Jews attacking Jesus for using the Name, which would have been one of their greatest tools against him. In all likelihood he would have been thrown out of the synagogue and the scribes and Pharisees would have refused to listen to his speech at all. Rather, he is accused of blasphemy for attributing the Name to Himself! (i.e., its reputation and authority - see John 8:58; 10:33).

    Did the Apostles Use the Name?

    The Watchtower argues:

    Did Jesus' followers in the first century use God's name? They had been commanded by Jesus to make disciples of people of all the nations. (Matt. 28:19,20) Many of the people to be preached to had no conception of the God who had revealed himself to the Jews by the name Jehovah . How would the Christians be able to identify the true God to them? Would it be enough to call him God or Lord? No. The nations had their own gods and lords. (1 Cor. 8:5) How could the Christians have made a clear difference between the true God and the false ones? Only by using the true God's name.

    Thus, the disciple James remarked during a conference of the elders at Jerusalem: "Symeon has related thoroughly how God for the first time turned his attention to the nations to take out of the a people for his name. And with this the words of the Prophets agree." (Acts 15:14,15) The Apostle Peter, in his well-known speech at Pentecost, pointed out a vital part of the Christian message when he quoted the words of the prophet Joel: "Everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah will get away safe." Joel 2:32; Acts 2:21.

    The apostle Paul leaves no doubt about the importance to him of God's name. In his letter to the Romans, he quotes the same words by the prophet Joel and goes on to encourage fellow Christians to show their faith in that statement by going out to preach about God's name to others in order that these, too, might be saved. (Romans 10:13-15) Later he wrote in his letter to Timothy: "Let everyone naming the name of Jehovah renounce unrighteousness." (2 Tim. 2:19).

    However, Jesus and his followers had prophesied that an apostasy would occur in the Christian congregation. The apostle Peter had written: "There will also be false teachers among you." These warnings were fulfilled. One result was that God's name was pushed into the background. It even got removed from copies and translations of the Bible! --The Divine Name, p. 16

    To start with, the Watchtower assumes that the Hebrew God had no reputation among the surrounding nations. The Jews were well-known monotheists who worshipped one God, and the name Yahweh conjured up its own reputation among the nations surrounding them. But the real question is, what name were the Christians using to identify themselves with the name Yahweh or Jesus? There is not one indication that the apostolic Christians were ever called "Yahweh's" or " Jehovah 's Witnesses," or that they ever even used the Name. In quoting from the Old Testament prophecies where the Name occurred, they consistently apply the Name prophetically to Jesus Christ! Additionally, they were by divine providence called "Christians," the only Biblical name they can be called (the expression "Yahweh's witnesses" applied only to the Jews in the Mosaic Law covenant. Yet Christians are spoken of as being married to Christ. (compare Isa. 54:16 with Eph. 5:25-27).

    Let's consider some passages where the OT is speaking of Jehovah , and the New Testament writers quote it and apply it to Christ:

    [1] Hebrews 1:10 is a quotation of the LXX version of Ps. 102:25. The Psalm is unquestionably speaking of Jehovah , yet the writer of Hebrews applies it to Christ! Knowing this, the New World Translating Committee broke their own rules and refused to insert " Jehovah " into Hebrews 1:10. 2

    [2] 1 Peter 3:14,15 is a quote from Isa. 8:12,13, which obviously contained the tetragram in the Hebrew text and referred to "sanctifying Jehovah in our hearts." Yet, Peter paraphrases it and applies it directly to Christ, saying that we are to sanctify CHRIST in our hearts! Again, their Translating Committee has shown bias in not following their own rules. Even the footnote in the Kingdom Interlinear shows that many of the modern Hebrew Bibles have " Jehovah " in 1 Peter 3:15. But since that would identify Christ with Jehovah , the Translating Committee could not face up to it.

    [3] Acts 2:21 quotes from a prophecy in Joel 2:28-32 that contained the tetragram in the Hebrew text, saying, "Whoever calls upon the name of Jehovah will be delivered." Yet Peter quotes it and applies it to Jesus in Acts 2:21, as verse 38 says, "And Peter said to them, `Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.'"

    Additionally, the name of Jesus takes great precedence over " Jehovah " in the New Testament. Just in the book of Acts alone, note the overwhelming importance of the name of Christ, with no mention of the covenant name of God:

    Men healed in the Name Acts 3:6,16; 4:10,30
    Salvation in the Name Acts 4:12; 10:43; 22:16
    Baptism in the Name Acts 2:38; 8:16
    Forgiveness through the Name Acts 10:43
    Teaching and preaching in the Name Acts 8:12; 4:18; 5:28
    Calling upon the Name Acts 2:21; 9:14,21
    Speaking in the Name Acts 4:17; 9:27,29
    Suffering for the name Acts 9:16; 15:26; 5:41
    Bearing the Name before the nations Acts 9:15
    Paul once opposed the Name Acts 26:9
    Called or designated by the Name Acts 11:26

    The New Testament record shows that the Name of Jesus holds primary importance, rather than the covenant Name of Jehovah . This is in line with Hebrews 1:1,2 where it is said that God, though speaking through his covenant people in times past, is now speaking through the Son; who is the exact representation of the Father (but not the Father). Note also other NT texts that speak of the Name of Jesus as being the most important name there is: Eph. 1:20,21; Phil. 2:9; 2 Thess. 1:12; 1 Cor. 1:2; Col. 3:17; 1 John 3:23; Rev. 2:3, 13. Jesus also spoke of the importance of his name in passages such as: Mt. 7:22; 10:22; 12:15-21; 18:5,20; 19:29; 24:9; 28:19,20 (just to cite Matthew).

    The history of the New Testament text reveals that it was the apostolic (1st century) Christians who played down the importance of preserving the OT name of God, for Jesus was the Name they were concerned with. This will be discussed next.

    Ancient Textual Discoveries

    The main Watchtower arguments:

    Some very old fragments of the Septuagint Version that actually existed in Jesus' day have survived down to our day, and it is noteworthy that the personal name of God appeared in them. The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology (Volume 2, page 512) says: "Recent textual discoveries cast doubt on the idea that the compilers of the LXX [Septuagint] translated the tetragrammaton YHWH by Kyrios. The oldest LXX MSS (fragments) now available to us have the tetragrammaton written in Hebrew characters in the Greek text. This custom was retained by later Jewish translators of the Old Testament in the first centuries A.D." Therefore, whether Jesus and his disciples read the Scriptures in Hebrew or Greek, they would come across the divine name.

    Thus, Professor George Howard, of the University of Georgia, U.S.A., made this comment: "When the Septuagint which the New Testament church used and quoted contained the Hebrew form of the divine name, the New Testament writers no doubt included the Tetragrammaton in their quotations." (Biblical Archaeology Review, March 1978, page 14) What authority would they have had to do otherwise? - The Divine Name, p. 24

    Sometime during the second or third century C.E. the scribes removed the Tetragrammaton from both the Septuagint and the Christian Greek Scriptures and replaced it with Kyrios, "Lord" or Theos, "God."

    Concerning the use of the Tetragrammaton in the Christian Greek Scriptures, George Howard of the University of Georgia wrote in Journal of Biblical Literature, Vol. 96, 1977, p. 63: "Recent discoveries in Egypt and the Judean Desert allow us to see first hand the use of God's name in pre-Christian times. These discoveries are significant for New Testament studies in that they form a literary analogy with the earliest Christian documents and may explain how NT authors used the divine name. In the following pages we will set forth a theory that the divine name . . . was originally written in the NT quotations of and allusions to the OT and that in the course of time it was replaced mainly with the surrogate [abbreviation for Kyrios, `Lord']. This removal of the Tetragrammaton, in our view, created a confusion in the minds of early Gentile Christians about the relationship between the `Lord God' and the `Lord Christ' which is reflected in the MS tradition of the NT text itself."

    We concur with the above, with this exception: We do not consider this view a `theory,' rather, a presentation of the facts of history as to the transmission of Bible manuscripts. - Appendix, Reference Edition of the New World Translation, 1984, p. 1564

    In answer to these statements, first we must consider that the portions of the Septuagint found which contain the tetragram are Jewish, and none may be of Christian origin. We are not so much concerned with what the Jews did, but what the apostolic Christians did in their translations. C. H. Roberts, in his book, Society, Manuscript and Belief in Early Egyptian Christianity (p. 77) states:

    "Extant versions of the Septuagint coming to us from Jewish sources contain the tetragrammaton whereas only two Septuagint copies that contain the tetragrammaton may have possibly be of a Christian source." Roberts describes these two Christian sources as "a Jewish form of Christianity (which) persisted in Oxyhynchus, and a possible explanation of these two eccentric texts would be that they were the work of Jewish-Christian scribes." (p. 34, 57)

    One of these earliest manuscripts that the Watchtower and the New International Dictionary are referring to is the translation done by Aquila, an apostate from Christianity. Aquila rendered passages so as to counter the Christian's arguments, but his style was the exception, rather than the rule. (see Our Bible and the Ancient Manuscripts by Kenyon, p. 56) Aquila was included in the "later Jewish translators" referred to in the New International Dictionary.

    Certainly, Jesus and his disciples came across the tetragram occasionally in their reading, but when and how often is anyone's guess. An effective argument cannot be made from speculation on this, though the Watchtower has tried.

    Regarding Professor Howard, his thesis is simply a theory, and he admits it as such. He does not even begin to suggest that the tetragram be restored to the text of the New Testament in any of his writings. Such tampering cannot be done by an honest translator, since there are simply no ancient manuscripts with the tetragram to translate from.

    When the Watchtower asks "What authority would they have to do otherwise," meaning how could they NOT copy the tetragram, they ignore the fact that there were no "rules" that the early church had to follow. They simply didn't think it that important to preserve the tetragram. Evidence from the first century Christian writings reveal that the Christians themselves replaced the tetragram with their own form of abbreviations, called "nomina sacra" by language scholars. These symbols may have been produced by the Jerusalem church before 70 A.D., or at the latest by the year 100. (Remember, the Bible as we know it was not even canonized until much later!)

    Scholars also tell us that there is no connection between the "nomina sacra" and the practice of translating the tetragram as KYRIOS or THEOS. It was not due to superstition or tradition, but was rather a convenience used by the early church. The "nomina sacra" were not used on just the tetragrammaton, either, but also on the names "Christ" and "Jesus." This was done by the apostolic church itself, rather than in the "second or third century," as the Watchtower dogmatically asserts. 3

    In summary: Early Christian manuscripts used abbreviated forms of sacred names, while some Jewish manuscripts of the LXX retained the tetragram. And since the NT is written by Christians for Christians, the Watchtower's use of Jewish manuscripts is irrelevant.

    Missing the Point

    Eventually, as we saw earlier, the name was restored to many translations of the Hebrew Scriptures. But what about the Greek Scriptures? Well, Bible translators and students without God's name, some parts of the Christian Greek Scriptures are very difficult to understand properly. Restoring the name is a big help in increasing the clarity and comprehensibility of this portion of the inspired Bible.

    For example, consider the words of Paul to the Romans, as they appear in the Authorized Version: "For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved." (Romans 10:13) Whose name do we have to call on to be saved? Since Jesus is often spoken of as "Lord," and one scripture even says: "Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved," should we conclude that Paul was here speaking about Jesus?Acts 16:31, AV.

    No, we should not. A marginal reference to Romans 10:13 in the Authorized Version points us to Joel 2:32 in the Hebrew Scriptures. If you check that reference, you will find that Paul was actually quoting the words of Joel in his letter to the Romans; and what Joel said in the original Hebrew was: "Everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah will get away safe." (New World Translation) Yes, Paul meant here that we should call on the name of Jehovah . Hence, while we have to believe in Jesus, our salvation is closely linked with a proper appreciation of God's name.

    This example demonstrates how the removal of the name of God from the Greek Scriptures contributed to confusing Jesus and Jehovah in the minds of many. Undoubtedly, it contributed greatly to the development of the doctrine of the Trinity! - The Divine Name, p. 26

    The "Bible translators" and "students" mentioned by the Watchtower that had difficulty in understanding the NT are apparently none other than Jehovah 's Witnesses themselves. If you realize as did the inspired NT writers that Jesus shares the nature of his Father and his Name, there is no problem. On the other hand, if you believe that Jesus is a creature, an angel, there are serious "discrepancies" that must be translated out of the Bible to retain your theology. When an apostle quotes an OT passage about Jehovah and is obviously applying it to Jesus (such as Romans 10:13), you must perform gymnastics in translation or interpretation to retain your view, and this is what the Watchtower has done. How sad that they miss the point of the transition between the Old Covenant and the New Covenant. Note the words of Herman Bavinck in his book, Our Reasonable Faith: (p. 313)

    The use and significance of the name in the Old Testament is carried over to Christ in the New. The Name of the Lord, or the Name alone, was in the Old Testament the denomination of the revealed glory of God. In the days of the New Testament that glory has appeared in the person of Jesus Christ; and thus the strength of the church now stands in His name. . . . the name of Jesus Christ was a sort of compendium of the confession of the church, the strength of its faith, and the anchor of its hope. Just as Israel in ancient times gloried in the name of Jehovah , so the church of the New Testament finds its strength in the name of Jesus Christ. In this name the name of Jehovah has come into its full revelation.

    This is the main point that the Watchtower has missed--far overshadowing inconsistencies in the churches. Like the Pharisees in Jesus' day, they missed out on the real Messiah!

    Is the Watchtower Honest?

    Would a translator have any right to restore the name, in view of the fact that existing manuscripts do not have it? Yes, he would have that right. Most Greek lexicons recognize that often the word "Lord" in the Bible refers to Jehovah . For example, in its section under the Greek word Kyrios, Robinson's A Greek English Lexicon of the New Testament says that it means "God as the Supreme Lord and sovereign of the universe, usually in Septuagint for Hebrew Jehovah ." Hence, in places where the Christian Greek Scripture writers quote the earlier Hebrew Scriptures, the translator has the right to render the word Kyrios as " Jehovah " wherever the divine name appeared in the Hebrew original. - The Divine Name, p. 26, 27

    One translation that boldly restores God's name with good authority is the New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures. This version, currently available in 11 modern languages, including English, has restored God's name every time that a portion of the Hebrew Scriptures containing it is quoted in the Greek Scriptures. Altogether, the name appears with a sound basis 237 times in that translation of the Greek Scriptures.
    The Divine Name, p. 27

    As to whether a translator has the right to introduce something into the New Testament which cannot be found in any available ancient documents, simply on the basis of theological bias, I will let another translator answer. Stephen T. Byington translated The Bible in Living English, and the Watchtower Society purchased the rights to print and distribute this version of the Bible due to its use of the name " Jehovah " in the Old Testament (but not in the New). Byington himself said this in review of the Watchtower's "Christian Greek Scriptures":

    If we need to argue the point of translating "the Lord" where the Greek says "the Lord", my argument would be that when Jesus and the apostles and their friends spoke an Old Testament text aloud, they said "the Lord" for " Jehovah " even in so careful a quotation as Mark 12:29 (the newly found manuscript of Isaiah may be cited as fresh evidence that the custom of saying "the Lord" began before the time of Christ, for it has cases of wavering between the readings " Jehovah " and "the Lord", and the explanation of such wavering is that the two were pronounced alike), and we cannot presume that the apostles wrote otherwise than they spoke. And it is a translator's business to reproduce his original. 4

    The Watchtower would do well to heed the words of one that they so admire for putting the name " Jehovah " into his own Old Testament translation. But they bridge the gap between presumptuousness and outright dishonesty when they make the statement that they have "restored God's name every time that a portion of the Hebrew Scriptures containing it is quoted in the Greek Scriptures." The Watchtower did not translate " Jehovah " into 1 Peter 3:15 and Acts 2:21, though the OT passages that they are quoted from contain the tetragram there. To do such would be admitting that somehow Jesus is referred to as " Jehovah " in the OT.

    In Conclusion

    There is simply no scholarly justification for introducing the tetragram (let alone the less accurate " Jehovah ") into the text of the NT. The absence of the tetragram in any NT manuscript, out of over 13,000 available, demolishes their case. If God was so concerned about the preservation of his covenant name, one wonders why there is no evidence that the apostles perpetuated it in their writings. Further, to imply that the name " Jehovah " is the primary name we are to be concerned with contradicts the continual emphasis on the name of Jesus, as has been established. While the tetragram is not to be found in any NT manuscripts, the name of Jesus is found over 900 times.

    Christians are to make the name of the Father known, as Jesus emphasized (Mt. 6:9; John 17:26). How do they do that? By recognizing that Jesus Christ was chosen by the Father to embody all the glory and reputation surrounding that Name (Phil. 2:11), and that to fail to identify with the name of Jesus will cause our loss of life (Acts 4:12).

    The motive of the Governing Body, as it always has been and will be, is to make themselves stand out as being separate and distinct from the churches. Whether the issue be the cross, holidays, the word "church," or the name " Jehovah ," the primary issue always revolves around their sectarian spirit. When you pin them down on any of these issues and refute them step by step, they concede that the issue is not really that important, but then switch to another exclusive doctrine as proof of their being God's chosen people. Fortunately, many even in the organization see through the scholastic dishonesty and are finding out that the supreme manifestation of Jehovah is in His Son, Jesus Christ. Even the Pharisees revered the name Yahweh greatly, but failed to use the real key to life - the name of JESUS (John 5:37-40).


    Footnotes:

    1 Since then, as pointed out profusely in the Watchtower booklet, churches all over the world used variations of " Jehovah " and decorated their churches and statues, and writings with it. Strangely, it does not seem to bother them that this practice was first instituted by Christendom (their object of attack) and is used in many Christian churches all over the world to this day.

    2 The Watchtower's own Kingdom Interlinear translation says, on page 18 of the foreword:

    "How is a modern translator to know or determine when to render the Greek words KYRIOS and THEOS into the divine name in his version? By determining where the inspired Christian writers have quoted from the Hebrew Scriptures. Then he must refer back to the original to locate whether the divine name appears there."

    3 [see Manuscript, Society and Belief in Early Egyptian Christianity, C. H. Roberts, p.26-29]

    4 [The Christian Century, May 9, 1951; p.589]

    reprint from the Jul/Aug 1985 Bethel Ministries Newsletter and now the full article is HERE. (This is the last half)

    Randy

  • wobble
    wobble

    I have come to believe that when "god" said his "name" was YHWH he was showing that he did not need a"personal" name.

    Names in ancient Hebrew mean a great deal, hence Abram becomes Abraham etc, but why would the One True God need a single name ?

    No, the writer is saying that God can become the Warrior God or anything He needs to be at any time, the writer is not introducing us to a personal name that needed to be used as you and I would when talking to our friends.

    And so it was never necessary to use it in worship, hence Jesus' silence on it.

  • slimboyfat
    slimboyfat

    I think Jehovah's Witnesses have a good case to make for the diving name originally being in the New Testament, so I would not challenge a Jehovah's Witness over this issue. Why not stick to issues where they are clearly wrong?

  • Aussie Oz
    Aussie Oz

    This is one subject that i am yet to fully look at but it does raise one question for me at the moment...for me personally, there is so much more that proves the JWs are a crock that this, possibly because i dont trust the book no matter what the 'name'...

    The 237 times 'Jehovah' is 'restored' to the greek scriptures... are they all passages of quotes from the Hebrew scriptures?

    and i am stunned at how dumbed down i was as WT Drone...

    oz

  • wobble
    wobble

    I think the vast majority of the 237 times are quotes from the O.T but certainly not all of them, in their arrogance they have inserted the name with not even that tenuous excuse, primarily to support their theology, which is the motive for all of the times they do it really.

    I do not see how they can possibly have a "good" case for this, without justification from an early manuscript, how can you justify adding or even subtracting anything ? (I have read many arguments on this , including what Slimboyfat has posted before, but I find them far from convincing)

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