The Jesus figure in the Bible, accross almost all Christian denominations, is one of redemption for humankind. The way that Jesus accomplishes that redemption, however, differs between them. According to the Gospels God, or God's son, lived a man's life and died as a man in redemption of mankind. Evidently, living a man's life was a requirement for the redemption to take place. This would be, at least in part, because up until Jesus' existence no divine being had lived the life of a human from birth.
That being said, take a look at Matthew 5:27-29:
27 “You have heard that it was said, ‘You shall not commit adultery.’ [ e ] 28 But I tell you that anyone who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart. 29
Even as a child I remember thinking Jesus was being over the top in this verse and now I know why it bugged me so much. Jesus is always presented within the Bible as a perfect man in thought, intention and action. Yet, here we have a man who has never even kissed a woman on the cheek making a wild generalization about relationships. As the Gospel reccounts Jesus was not one to be a hypocrite and there were many people of that day that would have called him out on such a hypocritical statement including his Apostles.
I theorize that it is because of this verses inconsistancy with the scriptures, as well as Gospels, that surround it, that Jesus must have had a wife, especially one that died. With that added in this verse makes more sense. Jesus would have means to make such a bold statement because he was choosing to be faithful to the memory of a dead wife. If this were true no one would dare question whether or not he had looked at a woman lustfully since her death as it would dishonor both of them.
-Sab