If your baptism was invalid because it was performed by another denomination, is it invalid for that reason, or because of the words used ?
Why do converts need to get baptised again if the words of their original are totally scriptural ? (I think Fred Franz was one that never got baptised by JW's?)
If the only baptism that is valid is the one they have now, then mine, 1962, was invalid.
Who decides what is a valid Baptism, Jehovah or the WT?
If the latter, who gave them the right, the simple baptisms of the 1st Century were acceptable to Jehovah without an organization being mentioned or even involved since there wasn't one.
As with all WT doctrine and practise, the whole thing is a mucking fuddle.