Question about 2 Tim. 3:16

by beenthere2 23 Replies latest watchtower beliefs

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  beenthere2

  Regarding 2 Tim. 3:16, "all scripture is inspired by God".....since the only scripture at the time this was written was the Old Testament (Hebrew scriptures, if you prefer), would it make sense to reason that this scripture cannot be used by itself to support New Testament writings?....that the scriptures referred to in this verse were the Old Testament?

  As an apostle Paul had authority, but to me it seems that some of the things Paul wrote were related as "commands" to the congregations, whereas other things were only his suggestions or his perspective and that it was up to the individuals to decide for themselves.

  Your thoughts on this?
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  N.drew

  would it make sense to reason that this scripture cannot be used by itself to support New Testament writings?

  That appears to be sound reasoning from my pov.

  Are you saying the scriptures that they would have been communicating about is the Hebrew scriptures? I think you might be right. The letters of the Greek Scriptures would not have been included in the meaning of 2 Tim 3:16 because they had not been tried like the Hebrew Scriptures have been.
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  Leolaia

  Yeah there was no such thing as the NT at the time the Pastorals were written and the author specifically tells the reader to recall the scriptures he has known since infancy (v. 15), which would rule out the present NT in the original context. The concept of what constituted the "scriptures" however was in flux at the time, and does not necessarily correspond to our modern canon. The reference to Jannes and Jambres in v. 8, in fact, suggests a familarity of traditions and books outside our OT canon (such as the Book of Jannes and Jambres). The author of Jude moreover considered the Assumption of Moses and 1 Enoch as authoritative works, quoting the latter as inspired "prophecy". And 1 Enoch is quoted as "scripture" in Barnabas and Tertullian quoted 2 Timothy 3:16 in order to defend the reliability of 1 Enoch. As for the status of NT writings as "scripture", we first encounter this notion in 2 Peter with respect to the letters of Paul showing that this process of canonization was underway in the first half of the second century AD.

  Oh yeah, and Paul definitely makes reference to his own opinions in his letters, alongside dominical commands.
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  tec

  Good reasoning to me also, beenthere, and Leo is once again a fountain of facts.

  Peace,

  tammy
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  beenthere2
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  beenthere2
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  beenthere2
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  Quarterback

  Good post.

  I never really thought this one clearly before.

  Very good background, Leo.
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  beenthere2
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  Black Sheep

  Try a different browser beenthere