Two quotes:
"EH argues that Israelite culture and language was so close to Canaanite so as to be nearly indistinguishable, which would hardly be the case had they been Egypt-dwellers for four centuries previously, as the article contends."
" The Merneptah Stele is an inscription made by Pharaoh Merneptah in 1210 BCE, boasting about conquering various Canaanite cities and Israel, which he supposedly "laid waste." Interestingly, the Israelites are shown dressed and groomed exactly as the Canaanites (which lends credence to EH's assertion of common culture). Awake! asserts that the occurrence of Israel on this stele "further support[s] the existence of this nation" (18), yet the hieroglyph used for Israel means "rural or tribal entity," as OH puts it (124), not the hieroglyph for nation or city-state, which is used for the Canaanite cities. The sign used for Israel "signify[ed] nomadic groups or peoples without a fixed city-state home, thus implying a seminomadic or rural status for Israel at that time," notes OH (97)."
As for the first one, WT chronology says they were Egypt dwellers for two centuries (215 years), and not for four centuries. The four centuries run from the establishment of the Abrahamitic covenant to the end of the Egypt-dwelling, according to WT chronology.
The second one, would not the OH quotes fit rather well also with the WT chronology, since the firm establishment of a nation did not take place until the unification as a Kingdom towards year 1,000? I feel the GA quote about the existence of Israel as a nation does not point to a firmly established, unified kingdom or nation as such, but to the esistence of the people, gathering of tribes, somewhat like that. I see, just as you do, that the quote says "nation", but as said, the same WT literature does not say the Kingdom came in existence until a couple of centuries later. And the book of Judges - and the WT comments on it in its literature - tell about conditions and happenings corresponding with the OH quote.
Or?