Were 'alien residents' Second Class Israelites?

by The Searcher 32 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • Bobcat
    Bobcat

    Incidentally, a better date for leaving Egypt and the initiation of the Mosaic Law would be 1446 BC.

    The Society dates the split in the kingdom at 997 BC. A more accurate dating would be 930 BC or 67 years later. For the most part, all dates prior to this, if you subtract 67 years you will be more accurate. From 930 the 67 years difference with the Society's dating reduces down (but not evenly) to 587 BC for Jerusalem's sacking, which the Society dates at 607 BC. (a 20 year difference.)

    (Thus, Adam's "birth" would calculate to 3959 BC. The flood to 2302/3 BC. 1975 AD becomes 2042 as the 6000th year of man's existence. All this is Biblical dating, by the way.)

  • OldGenerationDude
    OldGenerationDude

    Finally, something right up my alley being that I'm Hebrew.

    If a foreigner in the United States obeys the laws of a country, does that automatically make that foreigner a United States citizen? No. But while the foreigner is in the U.S., that person is obligated to observe the laws of this land, citizen, native, or otherwise.

    While some might think this is just splitting hairs, it is important to note that Jews do not use the term Law Covenant or Mosaic Law Covenant like the Jehovah's Witnesses. Why not? Because it is not a covenant involving a law. It's a covenant that involves a people, the Jews, and the author or the covenant, HaShem (God). Torah, what Gentiles and Christians often call the Mosaic Law, makes up the constitution of the covenant. Since the two parties (the children of Abraham and HaShem) made the covenant at the foot of Sinai, it is referred to as the Sinai Covenant.

    For the Jehovah's Witnesses--who approach religion like a scholastic or academic exercise--it's all about rule-keeping and words, so of course they concentrate on who obeys the laws. But the covenant is not with the foreigner who was in the midst of the children of Abraham at the time HaShem made the Hebrews a nation all his own. The laws themselves show this to be so, for while the Jews were told to displace the foreigners who lived in the land promised to Abraham and his children, they were also warned to avoid mistreating the foreigners who were already in their midst.

    The Hebrew word translated as "alien resident" in the New World Translation is translated in English as "foreigner" or "non-Jew" in Jewish texts. Since the text in Ezekiel refers to the "foreigners" receiving a share among Israel at the time of the Messiah, they could not have been included in the Sinai Covenant. The text in Ezekiel speaks of non-Jews who have 'given birth to children living among you,' speaking of the foreigners who went into the Promised Land with the Israelites under Joshua. If they were already included in the promise, then Ezekiel would not have spoken of a future time (which is why Christians interpret this text as applying to them now under Christ, not something that was possible before Jesus).

    Neither Jewish tradition or history or the way Jews read, translate or interpret Scripture leave room for any doubt: the "alien residents" were "non-Jews" and thus not included in the Covenant of Sinai. It it thus incorrect to speak of these non-Jews as 'second-class Israelites' since they were never Isrealites of any type to begin with and thus could never be beneficiaries.

  • OldGenerationDude
    OldGenerationDude

    By the way, I went into Jewish thought mode and may need to clarify some things now that I re-read what I posted:

    1. Since Torah (the Law) commands the Jews to avoid mistreating the "alien resident" or "non-Jew" among them, then these people obviously weren't included in the Covenant. If they were, there would be not laws mentioning how the "non-Jew" was to be treated.

    2. Ezekiel's prophecy for "alien-residents...who gave birth to children living among you" shows they were not included in the Covenant (I refer to it as "the promise" as in "Promised Land," which might not be clear to some who are not Jewish and might confuse "promise" with the one Christians made reference to involving the "seed" through Isaac). Again, this shows they were never beneficiaries of any type because they are not promised to have any share until after Messiah arrives, not upon entering the Promised Land under Joshua.

    3. There were no "classes" among the Israelites (at least the Torah prohibited such views). The expression is a total invention of the JWs.

  • Leolaia
    Leolaia

    It is pretty obvious that entire clans of Edomite origin were later incorporated into Judah. From an earlier post of mine:

    Another important indication is found in the early tradition in Numbers 26:58 (LXX): "The following are the Levite clans: The Libnite clan, the Hebronite clan, the Korahite clan, and the Mushite clan". This non-genealogical fragment is embedded within P's genealogical census scheme and conflicts with it on a number of points (compare v. 10 and 57) and P appears to be dependent on it in his genealogy in Exodus 6:16-19 which contains a number of secondary contrivances. The first two names locate the Levites in two different towns in Judah, Libnah and Hebron (which turn up in the much longer list of Levitical cities in Joshua 21), and the southern credentials of the Korahites are also manifest in the fact that elsewhere Korah is one of the sons of Esau (= Edom) "born in the land of Canaan" (Genesis 36:5, 14), whereas the Chronicler makes Korah a son of "Hebron" (1 Chronicles 2:42), who in turn is designated as a Calebite. And the Calebites in turn are characterized elsewhere as Edomites of the clan of Kenaz (cf. Genesis 36:11, 15, 42, Judges 1:12), and Joshua 15:13-14 locates the Calebites in the town of Hebron. That the Calebites and Levites were both located in Hebron and both given Edomite ties through Korah is one sign of the overlap between the two groups. The town of Libnah also is depicted as siding with the Edomites in war against Judah (2 Kings 8:20-22), suggesting that the Levite clan of the Libnites had Edomite sympathies.

    I also think it is probable that the OT is aware that the tribe of Dan, despite the patriarchical narrative's aims at designating Dan as a son of Jacob, was originally of non-Israelite origin: it was only secondarily reckoned "as one of the tribes of Israel" (Genesis 49:16), it lacked a tribal territorial allotment (Judges 18:1), the OT lacks genealogies for Dan unlike the other tribes, the tribal name is similar to that of one of the Sea Peoples (called the Danaeans/Danoi/Denyan/Danuna), and OT portrays Dan as originally a seagoing people on the coast settled in territory adjacent to the Philistines (another Sea People), cf. Judges 5:17, 14:1, 16:1, etc.

  • OldGenerationDude
    OldGenerationDude

    While the above is limited to the scope of theory--and I am all for expressing new ideas--nevertheless especially in light of the constant rebuke of Edom in Tanakh and Rabbinal literature, not to mention Jewish tradition and history (see the Jewish Encyclopedia, and Wikipedia:Edom for more information), such an incorporation into the bloodline of the children of the covenant made at Sinai never invalidates that the covenant does not apply to non-Jews.

    But for the sake of argument, even if the Edomites somehow managed to get incorporated into Judah and even if the above theory were true that the tribe of Dan was ficticious (see the Jewish Encyclopedia on Dan), the fact remains that the Covenant of Sinai is with the children of Abraham through Isaac and that the idea of the "alien resident" as a "second-class" Israelite is an invention of the Watchtower in order to create the gulf between the so-called anointed "class," especially the Governing Body, and everyone else.

    No human is below this self-assuming Governing Body of Jehovah's Witnesses. Since of their own admission they do not inquire of other members of their "faithful and discreet class" in order to gather its knowledge and then act as it's "mouthpiece," and since they claim to have no relation to any other religious group or claim to have played a part to its history, they are no one's mouthpiece or representative, and they have no connection with those God made a covenant with at Sinai nor to the apostolic college chosen by Jesus of Nazareth. They are self-appointed, and making a mockery of the one they call Lord who said that there should not be classes among Christians: "A ll of you are equal as brothers and sisters."--Matthew 23:8, New Living Translation.

  • The Searcher
    The Searcher

    @ everyone who posted; (especially Bobcat)

    Thanks for all your comments and perspectives.

    I was trying to reach anyone (but especially fellow Witnesses who are blissfully unaware) who is prepared to examine what really happened at Sinai with the Covenant, and its application. The Hebrew Scriptures I urged people to look at (under the listing (alien resident/s) clearly show that our Grand Creator is willing to accept anyone as part of his people, providing they adhered to the terms and requirements of His Covenant. This would confirm that Jehovah was addressing everyone at Sinai, not just natural Israelites.

    Likewise with His New Covenant, instigated by Christ, any and all were invited to be parties to that new Covenant. "This means my blood of the Covenant which is to be poured out in behalf of many", Jesus said. Not just 144,000!

    It is noticeable that no one discussed the 'elephant in the room', Rahab and Ruth. Either Jehovah assimilated 'aliens' into His holy nation as Israelites due to their love for Him, or the Messianic family tree was corrupted- take your pick. Just remember Peter's words to Cornelius about God not being partial.

    Jesus brought Jews into the New Covenant first, and then 7 years later the "other sheep" (non-Jews) were invited. All those who put faith in Christ's sacrifice as the Lamb of God become parties to the New Covenant, and become members of the "Israel of God", in fulfillment of Jesus' words at Matthew 21:43 - "The kingdom of God will be taken from YOU and be given to a nation producing its fruits."

    That is why only the Jews had to be born again (into the New Covenant) - because they had been born into the Old Covenant, whereas non-Jews hadn't been "born" into any covenant with Jehovah.

    Conclusion: Jehovah will accept anyone who wants to serve him. Even Job who wasn't an Israelite, was described by God as "no one like him in all the earth."

  • mP
    mP

    Of course alien residents were second class citizens, recognising them as different by definition raises the question, why bother to define a separate class of people with no purpose. In those ancient times, like modern times, grouping is done for a reason. In the past Wesatern Europe had basically three classes, aristrocracy, clergy and everyone else. Naturally witin the aristrocracy there were further sub divisions. All these were done to segregate and to limit members of each.

    Perhaps one of the most memberal themes of the OT is the fact it says the Jews are the chosen people of God because of Abraham had a hairy beard. Actually we dont know why Abraham was selected, it appears God himself did not even tell Abraham his name as can be seen by Jehovahs pronouncement when revealing his name to Moses in Exodus 3(around there). Within Jewish society we can find two big divisions, the Levites and everybody else. The book of Levicitus is full of laws that apply only to priests and also grant them many benefits. Assuming that all tribes were of equal size that means there was 1 priest for every 12 israelites. Before anyone jumps on me, yes some tribes were relatively small in number compared to others, however we are not told muc in this regards to the Levites. With just the Levite class distinction we have social segregation which basically means the Levites get everyone given to them for pretending to talk to God, while everyone else works their guts out in thefield. I cannot comment on the practical implementation of this society, but one has to wonder how such a poor society managed to pay for so many priests. Today life is much easier in western societies but few if any governments employ such a large percentage of the population simply because it is not possible or affordable. Given they only had a few goats and sheep back then such a setup seems completely foolish.

    The best way of course to answer this q is to read the laws defined in the Torah itself. There are 613 Mitzvot and wiki contains a simple list of these. Reading the list shows that jewish slaves are more equal than forienger slaves. For example their time of servitude is limited to the next jubilee while other slaves are for time indefinitive. I wont comment on slavery but just this simple distinction is disgusting enough if one understand just how cruel and difficult life was for slaves. Not only were they slaves working for the master without pay, they were also his property in full, even at night.

  • mP
    mP

    everyone present, he then proceeded to validate the covenant by means of a blood sacrifice. (Exodus 24:8) It can be seen from the previous verses that non-Israelites were included in the Law Covenant, and would be willing subjects to all of its terms and conditions, as well as its benefits. Nowherein the Hebrew Scriptures is there even an inference that non-Isaelites were excluded from any aspect of the Law Covenant.

    This idea is just wrong... i will point out a few simple examples. As always goto the source, the Rabbis have compuled a definitive list that speaks for itself. If they admit separation then it must be true.

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/613_Mitzvot

    These marrying laws hardly paint a picture of an integrated unsegrated society. If anything this seems like a good model for what South Africa implemtned until recently.

    I wont comment on the evils of slavery, but these laws straight from Moses, are very much different for Jews and non Jews.

    • Purchase a Hebrew slave in accordance with the prescribed laws — Ex. 21:2
    • Not to sell him as a slave is sold — Lev. 25:42
    • Not to work him oppressively — Lev. 25:43
    • Not to allow a non-Jew to work him oppressively — Lev. 25:53
    • Not to have him do menial slave labor — Lev. 25:39
    • Give him gifts when he goes free — Deut. 15:14
    • Not to send him away empty-handed — Deut. 15:13
    • Redeem Jewish maidservants — Ex. 21:8
    • Betroth the Jewish maidservant — Ex. 21:8
    • The master must not sell his maidservant — Ex. 21:8
    • Canaanite slaves must work forever unless injured in one of their limbs — Lev. 25:46
  • Bobcat
    Bobcat

    The Searcher:

    Thanks for clarifying with your post.

    Old generation Dude:

    Thanks for your input. I appreciate your perspective.

    Take Care

  • John Kesler
    John Kesler

    Leolaia wrote:

    Another important indication is found in the early tradition in Numbers 26:58 (LXX): "The following are the Levite clans: The Libnite clan, the Hebronite clan, the Korahite clan, and the Mushite clan". This non-genealogical fragment is embedded within P's genealogical census scheme and conflicts with it on a number of points (compare v. 10 and 57) and P appears to be dependent on it in his genealogy in Exodus 6:16-19 which contains a number of secondary contrivances. The first two names locate the Levites in two different towns in Judah, Libnah and Hebron (which turn up in the much longer list of Levitical cities in Joshua 21), and the southern credentials of the Korahites are also manifest in the fact that elsewhere Korah is one of the sons of Esau (= Edom) "born in the land of Canaan" (Genesis 36:5, 14), whereas the Chronicler makes Korah a son of "Hebron" (1 Chronicles 2:42), who in turn is designated as a Calebite. And the Calebites in turn are characterized elsewhere as Edomites of the clan of Kenaz (cf. Genesis 36:11, 15, 42, Judges 1:12), and Joshua 15:13-14 locates the Calebites in the town of Hebron. That the Calebites and Levites were both located in Hebron and both given Edomite ties through Korah is one sign of the overlap between the two groups.

    And if someone replies that these are different Korahs, what is your proof that they are the same person?

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