Cephas/Simon -> Peter
Saul -> Paul
Jesus -> Christ
by mP 30 Replies latest watchtower bible
Cephas/Simon -> Peter
Saul -> Paul
Jesus -> Christ
Same reason that Jesus' magic tricks are borrowed from 'pagan' stories.
Because Hellenized Judea was bilingual and influenced by Greek culture. Even as early as the Maccabean period, we find many examples of Jews replacing their Hebrew names with similar-sounding Greek or Latin names (Simeon → Simon, Menahem → Menelaus, Eliakim → Alcimus, Joshua → Jason, Reuben → Rufus, Joseph → Justus, Silas → Silvanus, etc.), or bearing double names that pair a Hebrew name with a Greek one (e.g. Judah Aristobolus, John Hyrcanus, etc.), or having Greek names that translate the meaning of the Hebrew. So in the NT Peter's Hebrew name Simeon was Hellenized as "Simon", and his Aramaic nickname Cephas had a Greek counterpart "Peter" which was often coupled with his Hebrew name as a double name (Symeon Peter, or Simon Peter). Similarly, Tabitha is an Aramaic name and Dorcas is its Greek translation, and Didymus is the Greek equivalent of Thomas. Similarly, "Christ" as a title was the translation of the Hebrew title Messiah. The nicknames however were often not part of a double name but set apart as an alias: "Saul who was also known as Paul" (Acts 13:9), "Simon who is called Peter" (Matthew 10:2), "Thomas who is also called Didymus" (Acts of Thomas 1), "Jesus who is also called Justus" (Colossians 4:11), "John who is called Mark" (Acts 12:12), and of course "Jesus who is called Christ" (Matthew 1:16).
For a detailed discussion, see Richard Bauckham's Jewish World Around the New Testament, 2010, pp. 371-391.
wow Leo, soo interesting and alyways well documented, thanks for all the effort.
are you available as an app for my smartphone ?
Did *they* change their names? Or did the people who wrote the Bible do it for them?
In Simon's case it was Jesus who gave him the name Cephas/Peter. (John 1:42) Later, Jesus gave meaning to the name. (Matthew 16:13-19)
mp -> bobcat
That still doesnt explain why a jew would give Simon a greek name. Are we to believe that Peter now went around witnessing introducing himself to all his fellow aramiac speaking brothers as "Peter" ?
My neighbors are from various countries. I have noticed that while they retain their native name they also adopt an English name. I do believe that a form of Greek was the international language in the Roman Empire.
That still doesnt explain why a jew would give Simon a greek name. Are we to believe that Peter now went around witnessing introducing himself to all his fellow aramiac speaking brothers as "Peter" ?
In Aramaic-speaking circles, the nickname was Cephas. In Greek-speaking circles, the nickname was Peter. Both mean the same thing. Peter is the Greek translation of Cephas. Many Jews in the diaspora spoke Greek. It was a multilingual world in the first century. Especially in Antioch, where Peter was especially active.
Leolaia,
Do you know when this multilingual nomenclatural practice began (i.e. first-recorded example)?
Do you know if the names chosen in the non-native tongue were a corruption of the person's name in an attempt to pronounce it (i.e. a name created anew in the non-native language that was a phonetic sound-alike), or if the selection was chosen from a name that already existed in the foreign tongue that was similar?
PS I'm reading RB Onians book, The Origins of European Thought: the Body, the Mind, the Soul, the World, Time, and Fate. Fascinating stuff....