THIS IS A TERRIFICALLY IMPORTANT QUESTION!
The Apocrypha is only Apocrypha for the very same reason it was once EQUAL to the other books: some person wanted it that way and gave whatever reasons seemed good to them personally.
The fact that the Protestant Reformation (Martin Luther and others) simply tossed out CANONICAL BOOKS---should alert us to a greater danger than you might imagine!
Questions should be raised and addressed!
1.IF the men (early church fathers) were CORRECT in including these (now so-called apocrypha) as INSPIRED canon----how dare the "reformers" exclude them?
2.IF the early church fathers were INCORRECT in including these books---why should we ASSUME any of the books where the SAME STANDARDS were applied---are CORRECT?
3.ARBITRARY men in arbitrary situations simply act willy-nilly it would seem!
The very idea of an OFFICIAL bible canon did not begin with the Pope or the church. Did you know that?
It was begun by the apostate MARCION who tossed out the Old Testament Jehovah and substituted the Pauline concept of merciful Jesus.
At the point of extreme popularity--the "church" stepped in and said---"me too" by creating its own artificial arbitrary CANON.
The Apocrypha is only Apocrypha for the very same reason it was once EQUAL to the other books: some person wanted it that way and gave whatever reasons seemed good to them personally.
Hebrews, James, Jude and Revelation were deemed by Martin Luther (and many Catholic leaders as well) to be APOCRYPHAL too! This almost became acceptable and--had it been--today our official bibles would
reflect those prejudices easily.
That is what your question brings to our minds: THE BIBLE IS ABOUT AS TRUE OR USEFUL AS ANY HUMAN DECIDES FOR IT TO BE.