I didn`t come up with any of these and I`m sure many of you have seen these questions which Quotes passed on to me.
-1. If the organization did not actually prophesy the end in 1925
and 1975, then how come so many
Witnesses left the faith immediately afterwards? ("They lost
roughly three-quarters of the
movement between 1925 and 1928, then suffered huge losses after
1975, when the end didn't
come as they had implied over and over again," said Jim Penton,
an ex-Witness who writes entries
on Jehovah's Witnesses for the Encyclopedia Americana.)
-2. If the Watchtower organization rejects others calling them
"inspired" yet the Watchtower
organization does call themselves "God's Spirit-directed Prophet"
what is the difference? Is there
such a thing as an "uninspired prophet"? See Organization claims
inspiration.
-3. Has the Society ever taught anything scripturally incorrect?See
Prophecy Blunders of the
Organization.
-4. Might the Society be teaching anything scripturally incorrect
now?
-5. Since the Organization has received "new light" regarding the
1914 generation, and completely
changed their view on this, does this mean that all the former
Jehovah's witnesses who were
disfellowshipped years ago for the same view the organizationis
now teaching will automatically be
accepted into fellowship again? Were these Ex-Jw's in fact
disfellowshipped for truth and knew
things that the governing body did not? See Jw's were
disfellowshipped for rejecting generation
doctrine.
-6. Can Jehovah's Witnesses hold and discuss openly with other
Jehovah's Witnesses opinions that
differ from orthodox Watch Tower doctrine?
-7. Can individuals read & understand the Bible alone, or do they
need an organization and it's
publications to do so? Click here find the answer!
-8. How do you prove from the Bible that 1935 was the year for the
selection to heaven stopped due to
being filled? What is the difference between a Catholic appealing
to "what the organization tells him"
about December 25 being the date of Jesus' birthday and a Jw'
appealing to "what the organization
tells him" about the date 1935? Is it not hypocritical when you
chide the "poor deluded Catholic"
that his faith cannot find a Bible passage to support it, when
the same goes for you and 1935?
-9. How do you know that there were any vacancies, if any, in the
144,000 class if Jesus offered this
to first century Christians? How can the organization know the
exact number of vacancies today
without any records from the first century?
-10. Why are you called, "Jehovah's Witnesses" and not "Christians"?
Since Jehovah's Witnesses appeal
to Isa 43:12; 44:8 for scriptural support that they should be
called, "Jehovah's Witnesses" then
what was the "new name" prophesied in Isa 62:2? Can't be
"Jehovah's Witnesses", for God already
used it 20 chapters earlier. Could the new name be "Christian"
after our savior "Christ"?
-11. Why would the name God gave to His people not be "Christians"
since Acts 11:26 says, "The
disciples were first called Christians in Antioch"? Why is the
name "Jehovah's Witness" found
nowhere in the New Testament, if that is God's divine name for
His people under the new
covenant? Why would God wait almost 2000 years to suddenly start
using the name "Jehovah's
Witness". Does this mean that first century Christians were not
known as Jehovah's Witnesses"?
-12. If the name Jehovah is so important, then why is it never used
in the entire Greek New Testament?
If men edited out the name of God, "YHWH" when they copied the
New Testament, as only the
Watchtower organization claims, then how can we have any
confidence in any of the New
Testament? Should we discard the New Testament or the Watchtower
organization as unreliable?
-13. If the name "Jehovah" is so important, then why does Acts 4:12
say, "There is salvation in no one
else; for there is no other name [v10 Jesus Christ] under heaven
that has been given among men,
by which we must be saved"? Would this not have been the logical
place for God to have used the
name "YHWH"?
-14. What is the correct spelling of God's proper name "Yahweh" or
"Jehovah"? If Jehovah's Witnesses
maintain that "Yahweh" is more proper, why do they misspell it
"Jehovah"? If the name of God is
so important, then should you not only pronounce it correctly,
but spell it correctly too? Is not
spelling more important than pronunciation?
-15. Since the Jehovah's Witness organization currently rejects most
of the teachings of its founder
Charles Taze Russell (who was president of the organization from
1879-1916), and since they also
reject "Judge" Joseph Franklin Rutherford, who succeeded Russell
as president from 1916 - 1942,
how can we be sure that in 25 more years, Jehovah's Witnesses
won't also reject the current
president, Milton G. Henschel (1992 - present), as they did
Russell and Rutherford?
-16. What kind of confidence can anyone have in an organization that
rejected its founder and first two
presidents for the first 63 years of its existence? This
represents about 53% of the time they have
existed!
-17. Since the Watchtower organization claims "apostolic succession"
who was it that "passed the torch
of God's Spirit" to C. T. Russel when he founded the
organization? What was the name of this
individual?
-18. In the NWT, every time the Greek word "proskuneo" is used in
reference to God, it is translated as
"worship" (Rev 5:14, 7:11, 11:16, 19:4, Jn 4:20, etc.). Every
time "proskuneo" is used in reference
to Jesus, it is translated as "obeisance" (Mt 14:33, 28:9, 28:17,
Lk 24:52, Heb 1:6, etc.), even
though it is the same word in the Greek (see Gr-Engl
Interlinear). Especially compare the Greek
word "prosekunhsan" used with reference to God in Rev 5:14, 7:11,
11:16, and 19:4 and used with
reference to Christ in Mt 14:33, 28:9, and 28:17. What is the
reason for this inconsistency? If the
NWT was consistent in translating "proskuneo" as "worship", how
would the verses above
referring to Christ read?
-19. The NWT translates the Greek word "kyrios" as "Jehovah" more
than 25 times in the New
Testament (Mt 3:3, Lk 2:9, Jn 1:23, Acts 21:14, Rom 12:19, Col
1:10, 1Thess 5:2, 1Pet 1:25, Rev
4:8, etc.). Why is the word "Jehovah" translated when it doesnot
appear in the Greek text? Why is
the NWT not consistent in translating kyrios (kurion) as
"Jehovah" in Rom 10:9, 1Cor 12:3, Phil
2:11, 2Thess 2:1, and Rev 22:21 (see Gr-Engl Interlinear)?
-20. To what was Jesus referring to by the term "this temple" in Jn
2:18- 19? See Jn 2:21.
-21. If the Holy Spirit is God's impersonal active force, why doeshe
directly speak and refer to himself
as "I" and "me" in Acts 13:2?
-22. The NWT translates the Greek words "ego eimi" as "I am" every
time it appears (Jn 6:34, 6:41,
8:24, 13:19, 15:5, etc.), except in Jn 8:58 where it is
translated as "I have been". What is the reason
for the inconsistency in this translation? If "ego eimi" was
translated in Jn 8:58 the same way it is
translated in every other verse in which it appears, how wouldJn
8:58 read?
-23. In Rev 22:12-13, Jesus Christ, the one who is "coming quickly",
says of himself, " I am the Alpha
and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the
end". In Rev 1:17-18, Jesus, the one
who "became dead, but, look! I am living forever and ever",
refers to himself as the first and the
last. Rev 21:6, in speaking of God, says, "...I am the Alpha and
the Omega, the beginning and the
end ...". God is also referred to as the "first" and the "last"
in Isa 44:6 and Isa 48:12. How can this
be since by definition of these words there can only be one first
and one last?
-24. Jn 1:3 says that Jesus created "all things", but in Isa 44:24,
God says that he "by myself" created
the heavens and the earth and asks the question "Who was with
me?" when the heavens and the
earth were created. How can this be since if Jesus was createdby
God, then he would have been
with God when everything else was created?
-25. Col 1:16, in talking about Jesus, says that "... All [other]
things have been created through him and
FOR HIM". If Jesus was Michael the Archangel at the time of
creation, would an angel have
created all things for himself? Isa 43:7 says God created
"everyone .... for my OWN glory...".
-26. The Watchtower Society teaches that the 144,000 of Rev 7:4 isto
be taken literally. If chapter 7 of
Revelation is to be taken literally, where then does the Bible
say that the 144,000 will come from?
(See Rev 7:5- 8).
-27. If the soul is the body, why does Jesus make a distinction
between the body and the soul in Mt
10;28 ---28. The NWT translates Jn 1:1 as "... and the Word was WITH God,and
the Word was a god". How
can the Word (Jesus) be "a god" if God says in Deut 32:39, "See
now that I-I am he, and there are
NO gods together WITH me ..."?
-29. Jesus Christ is referred to as "Mighty God" in Isa 9:6 ("For
there has been a child born to us, there
has been a son given to us ... And his name will be called
Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God ...").
Jehovah is referred to as "Mighty God" in Isa 10:20-21. How can
this be if there is only one God
(1Cor 8:4, Isa 43:10, 44:6)?
-30. If Jesus was executed on a torture stake, with both hands
together over his head, why does Jn
20:25 say "...Unless I see in his hands the print of the nailS
....", indicating that there was more than
one nail used for his hands?
-31. Jesus uses the phrase "Truly I say to you, ..." over 50 timesin
the Bible. In the NWT, the comma
is placed after the word "you" every time except in Lk 23:43,
where the comma is placed after the
word "today". Why is the comma placed after "today" instead of
after "you" in this verse? If the
translation of this phrase in Lk 23:43 was consistent with the
translation of this phrase in all the
other verses in which it appears (see concordance), and the comma
was placed after the word
"you", how would it read?
-32. The NWT translates the Greek word "esti" as "is" in almost every
instance in the New Testament
(Mt 26:18, 38, Mk 14:44, Lk 22:38, etc.). See Greek-English
Interlinear. Why does the NWT
translate this Greek word as "means" in Mt 26:26-28, Mk 14:22-24,
and Lk 22:19? Why the
inconsistency in the translation of the word "esti"? If the NWT
was consistent and translated the
Greek word "esti" as "is" in these verses, what would these
verses say?
-33. In Jn 20:28, Thomas refers to Jesus in Greek as "Ho kyrios moy
kai ho theos moy". This translates
literally as "the Lord of me and THE God of me". Why does Jesus,
in Jn 20:29, affirm Thomas for
having come to this realization? If Jesus really wasn't the Lord
and THE God of Thomas, why
didn't Jesus correct him for making either a false assumptionor
a blasphemous statement?
-34. If Christ will not have a visible return to earth, then how will
he be seen by "ALL the tribes of the
earth" (Mt 24:30) and by "EVERY eye" (Rev 1:7) when he returns?
-35. If the Holy Spirit is God's impersonal active force, how could
he: Be referred to as "he" and "him"
in Jn 16:7-8 and Jn 16:13-14; Bear witness - Jn 15:26; Feel hurt
- Isa 63:10; Be blasphemed against
- Mk 3:29; Say things - Ezek 3:24, Acts 8:29, 10:19, 11:12,
21:11, Heb10:15-17, Rev 2:7; Desire -
Gal 5:17; Be outraged - Heb 10:29; Search -1Cor 2:10; Comfort-
Acts 9:31; Be loved - Rom 15:30
; Be lied to and be God - Acts 5:3-4?
-36. What is the meaning of Rev 14:9-11, which says, "... If anyone
worships the wild beast ... he shall
be tormented with fire and sulphur ... And the smoke of their
torment ascends forever and ever
...". Where could "anyone" be "tormented ... forever and ever"?
-37. Jn 1:3 says in reference to Christ, "All things came into
existence through him, and apart from him
not even one thing came into existence". How could Christ have
been a created being if ALL things
came into existence through him? If Jesus was a created being,
then according to Jn 1:3, Jesus
would have had to create himself.
-38. If the spirit of a man has no existence apart from the body,why
does Stephen just before his death
in Acts 7:59, pray to Jesus to "receive my spirit"? How could
Jesus receive Stephen's spirit if a
man's spirit ceases to exist when the body dies?
-39. If the great crowd is to have everlasting life on paradise
EARTH, why does 1Thess 4:17 say, "...we
the living who are surviving will, together with them, be caught
away in clouds to MEET THE
LORD IN THE AIR; and thus we shall always be with the Lord"?
-40. If there are 144,000 spirit anointed people who have a heavenly
hope, and a great crowd of people
who have another hope of everlasting life on paradise earth, why
does Paul say that there is only
ONE hope (Eph 4:4), instead of two?
-41. If there is no conscious awareness after death, how could the
"spirits in prison" be preached to by
Christ after his death (1Pet 3:18-20) and how could the good news
be "declared also to the dead"
(1Pet 4:6)?
-42. In Phil 2:9, the NWT inserts the word "other", even though it
doesn't appear in the original Greek
(see Gr-Engl Interlinear). What is the reason for inserting this
word? Is the word "Jehovah" a
name? See Ex 6:3, Ps 83:18, and Isa 42:8. How would the verse
read if the word "other" had not
been inserted? What does scripture say about adding words to the
Bible? See Prov 30:5-6.
-43. Heb 9:28, speaking of Christ, says "... and the second time he
appears..." How can Christ APPEAR
a second time if he will not have a visible return to earth?
-44. Amos 4:11 says, "'I caused an overthrow among you people, like
God's overthrow of Sodom and
Gomorrah. And you came to be like a log snatched out of [the]
burning; but you did not come back
to me,' is the utterance of Jehovah." How can Jehovah speakingin
this verse refer to another
person as God ("... like GOD'S overthrow of Sodom ...")?
-45. In Rev 19:1, where does it say that the "great crowd" will be?
-46. If Christians are persecuted for the sake of Jehovah's name,why
did Christ tell the first Christians
that they would be persecuted for the sake of his (Jesus') name
instead of Jehovah's (Mt 24:9, Mk
13:13, Lk 21:12, 17, Jn 15:21, and Acts 9:16)?
-47. In Col 1:15-17, the NWT inserts the word "other" 4 times even
though it is not in the original Greek
(see Gr-Engl interlinear). Why is the word "other" inserted? How
would these verses read if the
word "other" had not been inserted?
-48. In 2Pet 1:1, the NWT inserts the word "the". Why is it inserted?
How would the verse read if the
word "the" was not inserted? What does scripture say about adding
words to the Bible? (See Prov
30:5-6).
-49. In the sermon on the mount, when Jesus was addressing the "great
crowd" (Lk 6:17), why did he
tell them in Lk 6:22-23, "...your reward is great in heaven ..."?
-50. In Mt 1:23, who is Matthew referring to here that has been given
the name which means "With Us
Is God"? -51. In Rev 14:13, how can the dead be "happy" and find "rest" if
there is no conscious awareness after
death?
-52. If Jesus was executed on a torture stake, with both hands
together over his head, instead of on a
cross with both hands outstretched, why does Mt 27:37 say that
the sign "This is Jesus the King of
the Jews" was "posted above his HEAD" instead of being posted
above his hands? How could it
have been posted above his head if his arms were stretched out
over his head?
-53. In Lk 4:12, the NWT translates "kyrios" (Gr-lord) as "Jehovah",
which makes the verse read "...
'You shall not put Jehovah your God to the test.'" See Gr-Engl
Interlinear. Why is kyrios translated
as "Jehovah" in this verse? Was the devil, in Lk 4:9-11, putting
Jehovah to the test or JESUS to the
test?
-54. The Bible says that ONLY God is our savior (Hos 13:4, Isa
43:11,45:21, etc.). How can it be then,
that the Bible repeatedly says that Jesus Christ is our savior
(Lk 2:11, Phil 3:20, Tit 2:13, 3:6, 2Pet
1:1, 2:20, 3:18, etc.)?
-55. Referring to Isa 14:9-17, if there is no conscious awareness
after death, how could Sheol "...
become agitated at you in order to meet you on coming in..."
(v.9), how could the souls in Sheol
"... speak up and say to you..." (v.10-11), how could the souls
in Sheol when "...seeing you will
gaze even at you; they will give close examination even to you,
[saying,] 'Is this the man'..." (v.
16-17), and how would you be aware that this was happening?
-56. Heb 3:1 refers to "holy brothers, partakers of the heavenly
calling". In Mk 3:35, Jesus says,
"Whoever does the will of God, this one is my brother ...".
Therefore, according to the Bible,
whoever does the will of God is a brother of Jesus and a partaker
of the heavenly calling. How can
this be if the Watchtower Society teaches that only 144,000
people go to heaven?
-57. Heb 11:16, in speaking about some of the faithful people of the
Old Testament (Abel, Noah,
Abraham, etc.) says, "But now they are reaching out for a better
[place], that is, one belonging to
heaven..." and, "... their God for he has made a city ready for
them." The footnote on the word
"city" refers to HEAVENLY Jerusalem of Heb 12:22 and Rev 21:2.
How can this be since
according to the teachings of the Watchtower Society, the only
people who will go to heaven are
the 144,000 spirit anointed who have been chosen from people who
lived after Christ died?
-58. Rev 20:10 says, "And the Devil ... the wild beast and the false
prophet [already were]; and they will
be tormented day and night forever and ever." Where will the
devil, the wild beast, and the false
prophet be "tormented day and night forever and ever"?
-59. In Lk 24:36-39 and in Jn 20:26-27, Jesus showed his disciples
the wounds in his body as proof of
his resurrection. If Jesus' body had been destroyed by God after
he died, how could Jesus show
the disciples his body which had the wounds in his hands, feet,
and side and claim that he is not
just a spirit, "because a spirit does not have flesh and bones
just as you behold that I have" (Lk
24:39)?
-60. If Christ was created by God and was the wisdom of God (Prov
8:1-4, 12, 22-31), then before
Jesus would have been created, God would have had to have been
without wisdom. How is it
possible that God could have ever been without wisdom?
-61. Rev 7:11 says that "before the throne" is in heaven where "all
the angels were standing". Rev 14:2-3
says "And I heard a sound out of heaven ... And they were singing
as if a new song before the
throne ...". Rev 7:9 says, "... look, a great crowd ... standing
before the throne...". Rev 7:14-15
says, "...There are the ones that come out of the great
tribulation .... That is why they are before the
throne of God ...". Therefore, if "before the throne " means in
heaven (Rev 7:11, 14:2-3), and the
"great crowd" is "before the throne" (Rev 7:9, 7:14-15), where
does that mean that the great crowd
will be?
-62. If Jesus Christ is Michael the Archangel, how can Mt 25:31 say,
"When the Son of man arrives in
his glory, and ALL the angels with him, ...". Since "all the
angels" would certainly include Michael
the Archangel, is it possible that Jesus could return with
himself?
-63. In Lk 20:37-38, how could Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob be "all
living to him (God)", since they all
died hundreds of years before Jesus said this?
-64. If the soul dies when the body dies, how could the "souls" of
Rev
6:9- 11, who were of those who
had been "slaughtered" (i.e., killed), cry out "with a loud
voice,
saying: 'Until when Sovereign Lord
..."?
-65. In Mt 28:19, Jesus tells his disciples to baptize "people ofall
the nations ...in the name of the Father
and of the Son and of the holy spirit". Why would the disciples
be
instructed to baptize in the name
of anybody or anything who was not God? Do Jehovah's Witnesses
follow the command of Jesus
and baptize "in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the
holy spirit"?
-66. If the human soul IS the person, how could the soul go out ofa
person (Gen 35:18) or come back
into a person (1Kings 17:21)?
-67. The Watchtower Society teaches that the earth will never be
destroyed or depopulated. How can it
be, then, that God says in Isa 51:6, "... the earth itself will
wear out, and its inhabitants will die like
a mere gnat ...", and that Jesus says in Mt 24:35, "Heaven and
earth will pass away...", and that
John says in Rev 21:1 that he saw "... a new heaven and a NEW
earth, for the former heaven and
the FORMER earth had passed away, and the sea is no more."?
-68. Referring to Lk 12:4-5, what would be left of a person after
they
were killed that could be thrown
into Gehenna?
-69. Who or what does the spirit of Christ (Phil 1:19, Gal 4:6, Rom
8:9) refer to? In Gal 4:6, how is it
possible that the spirit of Christ could come into our hearts?
How
is it possible that the spirit of
CHRIST could reside in someone? If what the Watchtower Society
teaches is true, how could Paul
make this statement if Christ was a spirit person residing in
heaven?
-70. In Jn 8:56, Jesus says, "Abraham your father rejoiced greatlyin
the prospect of seeing my day, and
he saw it and rejoiced". Since Abraham died hundreds of years
before Jesus said this, how could
Jesus say that Abraham "saw it and rejoiced", if there is no
conscious awareness after death?
-71. In Jn 6:51, Jesus says that a person must eat "of this bread"in
order to "live forever", and that "the
bread that I give IS my flesh". In Jn 6:63, Jesus says "...
Unless
you eat the flesh of the son of man
and drink his blood, you have no life in yourselves." In Jn
6:54-55, Jesus says, "He that feeds on
my flesh and drinks my blood has everlasting life..." and "...
for
my flesh is true food and my blood
is true drink." Do you partake of the flesh of Christ , as Jesus
commanded, in order to have life in
yourself and in order to live forever?
-72. Every true Christian would agree that we should follow the
commands of God. In Mk 9:7, God the
Father commands us to listen to Jesus. Do you follow this command
and listen to Jesus? After all,
Jesus died for your personal sins (1Jn 2:2, 1Pet 2:24). Jesus
tells
us to go directly to him (Mt
11:28-30), and the Father commanded us to listen to Jesus. Why?
Because JESUS gives us
everlasting life (Jn 10:28), and so that JESUS will enter our
house
and be with us and give us the
right to sit on his throne (Rev 3:20- 21). Do you pray to Jesus
as
Paul and the early Christians did
(1Cor 1:2)? Do you partake of the flesh of Christ as Jesus
commanded (Jn 6:51)? If not, then are
you following the command of the Father who said "Listen to him"?
I was wondering if anyone from bethel could put these in "Questions from readers"!!!
Beans
when you blow out like a dead star it reminds me how uniform your beautiful is 