I am waiting for the chance to say, " Tell me Brother X, when was a "slave" ever authorized to demand obedience from the Master's children?"
Then I will read Galatians 4:1-9 : "Now I say that as long as the heir is a babe he does not differ at all from a slave, lord of all things though he is, 2 but he is under men in charge and under stewards until the day his father appointed beforehand. 3 Likewise we also, when we were babes, continued enslaved by the elementary things belonging to the world. 4 But when the full limit of the time arrived, God sent forth his Son, who came to be out of a woman and who came to be under law, 5 that he might release by purchase those under law, that we, in turn, might receive the adoption as sons.
6 Now because YOU are sons, God has sent forth the spirit of his Son into our hearts and it cries out: “Abba, Father!” 7 So, then, you are no longer a slave but a son; and if a son, also an heir through God.
8 Nevertheless, when YOU did not know God, then it was that YOU slaved for those who by nature are not gods. 9 But now that YOU have come to know God, or rather now that YOU have come to be known by God, how is it that YOU are turning back again to the weak and beggarly elementary things and want to slave for them over again?
Since I now differ from a slave, I am no longer under the authority of any steward. Why would I blindly obey anyone who by nature are not Gods??
DD