We are all so clearly sure that the WTS is wrong about the "last generation" doctrine but are we concerned about, if the WTS is wrong, what the true meaning is?
I'm no prophet - but when I left the JWs I told my parents that the generation doctrine would have to change after 1994 because that was 80 years after 1914.
This is the correct understanding. The Bible gives us what a generation is, a lifespan of a man, which is 70 to 80 years, 80 years at the most. Jesus' words were stated to LIMIT the time period when these events would all happen to within a generation, starting with a global conflict (i.e. "nation against nation, kingdom against kingdom"). So 1914 is a valid date for beginning that generation, but the Messiah must arrive within 80 years of that date, that is by 1994.
Now complicating the issue is that the witnesses think that the "great tribulation" is Armageddon and that the reference to the Jesus arriving in the clouds is when he comes to bring Armageddon instead of simply his second coming. They think he arrived in 1914. But if you read the Bible carefully, what happens near the end of that generation is the actual second coming, not Armageddon!
Once you understand that, therefore, you can have an accurate understanding of the this prophecy and check to see if it was fulfilled. So a lot depends upon accurate dating. Now that we have to deal with the evidence that Jerusalem fell in 529BCE, however, which gives us another date for dating the SECOND COMING to 1992, it's simply a matter of observing that the correct second coming date does fall within 80 years of 1914, that is prior to 1994.
So while JWs are in error about understanding the generation since they are in error across-the-board on understanding many things, the Bible remains true and was fulfilled by those who believe the 2520 years ended in 1992 near the end of the generation beginning in 1914, and believe that the "coming in the clouds" is really a reference to the secret (as a thief) second coming of the Messiah and not Armageddon.
So the Bible remains true if you have the correct interpretation and you don't have to twist a generation past 80 years for that to happen. If you stick with the Bible, though, you'll have to conclude that the second coming must occur before 1994 or else the Bible is not true.
But the year of the Second Coming is specific in the Bible. It must occur 45 years after the Jews return to Palestine and it must be within a year of the mid-week Passover during the last 70th week. If you count 70 weeks from 36 CE, for instance, you'll see that 1960 years ends in 1996 and thus the mid-week passover that ends "gift and sacrifice" (Jesus ends the Passover/Memorial when he eats it one last time when he arrives) must occur during Passover of 1993.
The "great tribulation" was not supposed to start during this last 70 weeks until after 62 weeks, that is 434 years. If the last 70 weeks began in 1506, therefore, then the "great tribulation" that was prophesied cannot begin before 1940. Yet, in order to fulfill the 50th Jubilee, which would see the Jews return to Palestine in 1947, the great tribulation must be already over. According to Daniel 12, after the great tribulation and the the "end" of the gentile times, that is when the Jews regain control over their homeland, ending their official exile, there still would be 45 years until the Messiah would arrive in order to fulfill the 1335 days. The end of gentile rule in Palestine ends the 1290 days. Thus a second way to date the Second Coming is to add 45 years to 1945 which, of course, means the Messiah cannot arrive before November 30, 1992, but obviously must arrive before April 6 (Passover) of 1993 to fulfill the "ending gift and sacrifice" part ofthe prophecy. But that leaves only a 7-year interval in order for the "great tribulation" to take place, a unique event that never happened before nor would happen again. But this was to happen to "Judea"! That is, the Jews! An event that if not cut short "no FLESH would be saved." This is not a reference to the entire world, but specifically to the flesh of the Jews. Thus the "gerat tribulation" which must occur sometime between 1940 and 1947 was none other than....THE HOLOCAUST!!! The Bible says that Jesus would come "Immediately AFTER the tribulation of those days..." after a period of spiritual darkness would occur. This is the interval of the 45 years from 1947.
But still, case in point, Jesus' words remain true as he said that he would arrive again within a generation of that first world conflict, that is, before 1994. So his arrival by 1992/1993 becomes true when you have the correct understanding and the correct dating which we can now cross-reference THREE WAYS by three prophecies that give us the specific year of the second coming, all of which must be coordinated. It is, therefore, not a mistake that we have discovered evidence in the VAT4956 and the SK400 astronominal texts that prove that the original 19th year of Nebuchadnezzar fell in 529BCE to confirm that the "7 times" prophecy dated from 529BCE to 1992 is the correct one which harmonizes with the Messiah arriving at least 45 years after the great tribulation and teh Jews return to Palestine yet before 80 years expire from World War I.
So if you've got the right interpretation and stop paying attention to twisted and desperate explanations by the WTS, then you can regain confidence in Bible prophecy. Those who have the true understanding, therefore, don't have to twist the generation past the 80 years the Bible allows for a standard lifetime.
The prophecy is true! The WTS is in spiritual darkness and this is just more evidence of it.
Thanks for this interesting topic!
L.G.
