Yes, we all know that, according to the bible, God originally established a union between one man and one woman - Adam and Eve. However, later in the OT we see that polygamy started being practiced and God permitted it and later even gave laws to regulate it. So in the OT God does not condemn polygamy and Israelites practiced it.
Fast foward to the NT. Are there any NT texts explicitly forbidding polygamy? No, there are none! There are only texts which chistians take out of context and apply to polygamy. For example, take Jesus' quoting of Genesis 2 when he said the 2 will become 1 flesh and that what God has yoked together let no man put apart. Many christians are quick to quote that text as evidence that marriage should only be between 2 people and polygamy is not permitted for christians. But was Jesus talking about polygamy? No. He was talking about the permanence of marriage and was quoting from Genesis to make the point that people should not divorce on trivial grounds.
For christians to say that polygamy is not permitted for christians and yet there are no NT texts explicitly condemning polygamy, is remarkable. Why so? Well given that polygamy was formerly permitted under OT law, you would think that there must have been some early Jews with multiple wives converting to christianity; or some Jewish christians thinking they can marry multiple women as permitted under the law - and especially now more so as they have greater christian freedom. Surely polygamy would have been an issue raised in at least one of the NT letters if christians were now suddenly debarred from the practice whereas they were formerly allowed to do it under the law!. But nowhere can we find such texts on the subject.
This leads me to the conclusion that the permission of polygamy was not rescinded in early bible times christianity. Had that been the case there would have been some measure of controversy surrounding it warranting some mention somewhere in the NT. If the permission of slavery - another controversial and dubious practice - was not rescinded in the NT, what makes christians think that polygamy was?
"The overseer should therefore be irreprehensible, a husband of one wife, moderate in habits, sound in mind, orderly, hospitable, qualified to teach," - 1 Timothy 3:2
"if there is any man free from accusation, a husband of one wife, having believing children that were not under a charge of debauchery nor unruly." - Titus 1:6
The above bible texts are the only NT scriptures that indirectly address the matter of polygamy by stating that overseers must have one wife. Christians often cite these texts as proof that polygamy is wrong for christians. But is that the point of these texts - to forbid polygamy? These texts are giving the criteria to be used for appointing men as overseers. They are simply saying that those appointed as overseers should have one wife. But this requirement does not necessarily mean that the writer is condemning polygamy as wrong. As a matter of fact, this requirement even implies that polygamy was practiced by early christians. For what would be the point of saying the overseer should have one wife if polygamy wasn't practiced among christians? It is my view that the recommendation that overseers have one wife has nothing to do with morality and everything to do with what Paul said here:
"Moreover, this I say, brothers, the time left is reduced. Henceforth let those who have wives be as though they had none," - 1 Corinthians 7:29
"and those making use of the world as those not using it to the full; for the scene of this world is changing. 32 Indeed, I want YOU to be free from anxiety. The unmarried man is anxious for the things of the Lord, how he may gain the Lord’s approval. 33 But the married man is anxious for the things of the world, how he may gain the approval of his wife, 34 and he is divided. Further, the unmarried woman, and the virgin, is anxious for the things of the Lord, that she may be holy both in her body and in her spirit. However, the married woman is anxious for the things of the world, how she may gain the approval of her husband." - 1 Corinthians 7:31-34
It is my view that Paul recommended overseers to be husbands of one wife so that they will have a simpler life with less anxieties for the things of the world and more time and attention to see to the needs of the congregation - the things of the Lord.
Perhaps, in time, Jewish christians who would have otherwise been polygamous started choosing to marry just one woman, so that they could qualify to be appointed as elders and gradually polygamy was phased out in this way - not because the NT condemned it as immoral but because men were "reaching out" to be appointed as elders.
