It's 1:30 am and I'm wide awake again as usual. I was doing a little Bible reading yesterday and
came across Luke 11:29 where Jesus states " when the crowds were increasing, he began to say,
this generation is an evil generation, it seeks a sign, but no sign will be given to it." I'm kind of
paraphrasing here and will drop down to verse 30 where he states " Jonah became a sign to the
men of Neneveh, so will the Son of Man be to this generation". I think it's plain enough to me
that the generation he is referring to is the people who are his detractors who are in his midst at
that time. Looking at Matthew 24:34 he states that " this generation will not pass away till all these
things take place". This generation here in Matthew takes on a deeper meaning because of the
future destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD and the future coming of the Son of Man. I'm using The
New Oxford Annotated Bible for the scriptually quotes so I would like to quote the footnote about
Matthew 24:34 which states " the normal meaning of ' this generation' would be ' men of our time'
and the words would refer to a period of 20 to 30 years. What Jesus meant here however is
uncertain." The point of my post is, why couldn't the WTS have used the same logic and said " we
are uncertain what is meant by generation in this verse ". But no, they had to assert themselves
and say this is what it means. We know what it means because we are spirit directed and then
change the interpretation approx 6 times. Believe and follow us or die. I gave up. Rant over!