I know only adultery is supposed to be grounds for "scriptural" divorce. I'm a wicked apostate in their eyes, but my believing husband and I still can't get a divorce that would allow him to remarry. Right? We currently are separated - I have left him. I may not be wording this very clearly. But my understanding is that I'd have to sleep with another man and there'd have to be witnesses or I'd have to admit to it. Then he'd have to file for the divorce. I wonder if we even really have grounds for a separation. I don't think so - so we're technically "unscripturally" separated. Oh, wait, me being an apostate is probably grounds for the separation - what is it called? spiritual endangerment. Oh my goodness isn't this all so stupid? He could sleep with someone else and then I could get a "scriptural" divorce from him and then he could get remarried. But then he'd be disfellowshipped for adultery or fornication or something. The more I try and wrap my head around this, the more my head spins!
Also, just thinking :) if I were to sleep with another woman (no, I'm not inclined that way), would that count as adultery? I'm so glad to be out of that religion! It's nuts! And I'm not about to sleep with anyone, man or woman, I'm 70 for goodness sakes, not that that makes me too old or anything, I just can't see being interested in all that again.
Thanks for listening to my babbling and I won't be hurt if nobody wants to bother replying to this mess. :)