Truthseeker, I suggest firstly that the christ figure referred to here never said these words even if he existed. There was no reason to believe that the writings called Matthew were anything other than embellishments of the Christ tale some forty or fifty years after Jesus was supposed to have lived.
Secondly to look for "meaning" is not an objective analysis of the text. The more pertinent questions are; Why was this comment included, by whom and for whom?
To imagine that this story has importance is to fall under the unreasonable influence of the 'sacred' interpretation of ancient texts, they are not-- they are expressions of political manipulation by religious cult leaders of the day who understood full well that others would get on the 'christ' bandwagon and the writers would lose converts and therefore influence and revenue if or when this happened.
The Bible acknowledges that "there are many christs" and the significance of this, along with a discussion of the early christ cults and the growth of Christianity, is explored in a remarkable book by JM Robertson called A Short History of Christianity. Well worth a read to get a new perspective on what was going on in the early centuries of the Common Era in the Roman world. The Levant and Palestine at this time were nothing like you imagine them to be if you use the Bible as a source of information. Two examples; Nazareth did not exist as a village or even a hamlet in the first century but Tiberius on the side of Galilee on the other hand was a modern (Roman) hip town with public baths, fortress, garrison and all the things Monty Python showed by asking, "What did the Romans ever do for us?"