More New Testament and Inclusion of name Jehovah

by robhic 11 Replies latest watchtower beliefs

  • robhic
    robhic

    I read with much interest all of the replies to my original question in another thread. I downloaded one of the books suggested and compiled what I could. Now, as I checked around for sources to prove that I was right and that the NT was Jehovah-less, two people mentioned WT sources that I would like verified: 1 - "The Watchtower March 1, 1991 p. 28 states that Jehovah is not found in the NT." Verification that that is correct? 2 -"... the foreward of the 'Kingdom Interlinear' states much the same thing." Verification?

    If anyone has access to these two publications and can let me know if my info is correct I'd appreciate it. I'd like to read/see for myself the wording here because I'd really hate to tell my new JW "buddies" to look in those two books and have them tell me I was wrong!!!

    Thanks to any and all who can help me out in my little project and thanks (again) to the persons who gave these two WT sources I cite above.

    Robert

  • Satanus
    Satanus

    Here is the 1991wt quote part of pg 28:

    God's Personal Name

    At Luke 4:18, according to the New World Translation, Jesus applied to himself a prophecy in Isaiah, saying: "Jehovah's spirit is upon me." (Isaiah 61:1) Many object to the use of the name Jehovah here. It is, however, just one of the more than 200 places where that name appears in the New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures, the so-called New Testament. True, no early surviving Greek manuscript of the "New Testament" contains the personal name of God. But the name was included in the New World Translation for sound reasons, not merely on a whim. And others have followed a similar course. In the German language alone, at least 11 versions use "Jehovah" (or the transliteration of the Hebrew, "Yahweh") in the text of the "New Testament," while four translators add the name in parentheses after "Lord." More than 70 German translations use it in footnotes or commentaries.

    In Israel, God's name was pronounced without inhibition for more than a thousand years. It is the name that appears most frequently in the Hebrew Scriptures ("Old Testament"), and there is no convincing proof that it was unknown to the general public or that its pronunciation had been forgotten in the first century of our Common Era, when Jewish Christians were inspired to write the books of the "New Testament."-Ruth 2:4.

    Wolfgang Feneberg comments in the Jesuit magazine Entschluss/Offen (April 1985): "He [Jesus] did not withhold his father's name YHWH from us, but he entrusted us with it. It is otherwise inexplicable why the first petition of the Lord's Prayer should read: 'May your name be sanctified!'" Feneberg further notes that "in pre-Christian manuscripts for Greek-speaking Jews, God's name was not paraphrased with kýrios [Lord], but was written in the tetragram form [YHWH] in Hebrew or archaic Hebrew characters. . . . We find recollections of the name in the writings of the Church Fathers; but they are not interested in it. By translating this name kýrios (Lord), the Church Fathers were more interested in attributing the grandeur of the kýrios to Jesus Christ." The New World Translation restores the name to the text of the Bible wherever there is sound, scholarly reason to do so.-See Appendix 1D in the Reference Bible.

    Some criticize the form "Jehovah" by which the New World Translation renders God's name. In Hebrew manuscripts, the name appears just as four consonants, YHWH, and many insist that the proper pronunciation is "Yahweh," not "Jehovah." Hence, they feel that using "Jehovah" is a mistake. But, in truth, scholars are by no means in agreement that the form "Yahweh" represents the original pronunciation. The fact is that while God preserved the spelling of his name "YHWH" over 6,000 times in the Bible, he did not preserve the pronunciation of it that Moses heard on Mount Sinai. (Exodus 20:2) Therefore, the pronunciation is not of the utmost importance at this time.

    In Europe the form "Jehovah" has been widely recognized for centuries and is used in many Bibles, including Jewish translations. It appears countless times on buildings, on coins and other objects, and in printed works, as well as in many church hymns. So rather than trying to represent the original Hebrew pronunciation, the New World Translation in all its different languages uses the form of God's name that is popularly accepted. This is exactly what other Bible versions do with all the other names in the Bible.

    I would imagine the important line is:

    True, no early surviving Greek manuscript of the "New Testament" contains the personal name of God.

    Sorry, i don't have the interlinear. Maybe someone can scan the appropriate page.

    SS

  • gumby
    gumby

    Robhic,

    You will find that even in the NWT .....MANY of the "letters" ( or epistles)... do not have his name at all. I used to know which ones but have forgotten. You would think if God's name was held with that much esteem, then every letter would have contained such a supposedly sacred usage. Jesus himself didn't bother to use it in his.....MODEL PRAYER.

    Gumby

  • robhic
    robhic

    SS

    Thank you, thank you, thank you! That is exactly what I wanted -- the very words of the WTS admitting (sorta roundabout but nonetheless...) that "the Name" isn't in the surving manuscripts. The one female JW kept giving me that knowing look and saying how it did appear somewhere she just didn't offer a source. Well, I've got an interesting little surprise for her!

    Gumby

    Good points, thanks. Also, nice hair.

    Thanks for this help and to others who can add to my sources. I'd like the quote from the Kingdom Interlinear now, that would kick ass!

    Robert

  • onacruse
    onacruse

    Interlinear, (1969 edition, p. 11):

    THE DIVINE NAME: One of the remarkable facts, not only about the extant manuscripts of the original Greek text, but of many versions, ancient and modern, is the absence of the divine name... [Comments about divine name in OT]...As the Christian Greek Scriptures were an inspired addition and supplement to the sacred Hebrew Scriptures, this sudden disappearance from the Greek text seems inconsistent...

    Also:

    *** it-2 p. 9 Jehovah *** (Insight book)

    In the Christian Greek Scriptures. In view of this evidence it seems most unusual to find that the extant manuscript copies of the original text of the Christian Greek Scriptures do not contain the divine name in its full form.

    Craig.
  • robhic
    robhic

    Craig

    Wow, thanks to you, also. You just wanted me to say that you, too, kicked ass, didn't you?

    Robert

  • onacruse
    onacruse

    eheh...

    Actually, this issue was a major clear-my-head revelation last summer. I'd just joined this board, and had ordered some CDs from Randy W (freeminds.org). He threw in a couple hard-copies of the books at that tetra.com site. I didn't get past chapter 1 of The Divine Name in the New World Translation to literally slam my fist to my forehead and say "Of course! Of course!" I've been deeply involved with the original Greek texts for over 20 years, and I know what these books say is true...but I'd never let myself see this obvious NWT error (well, actually, 237 errors ).

    From that point on, I've been walking the path of "question everything," and boy-oh-boy has this last year opened my eyes.

    Craig

  • ignorance is strength
    ignorance is strength

    Nope, not in there.

    In Reasoning From the Scriptures the WTS teaches that "Jehovah" is the proper pronunciation of God’s name, and so "Everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah will be saved" (Rom. 10:13). They continue, "Many scholars favor the spelling ‘Yahweh,’ but it is uncertain and there is not agreement among them. On the other hand, ‘Jehovah’ is the form of the name that is most readily recognized, because it has been used in English for centuries . . . " (p. 195).

    However, the JWs’ own Aid to Bible Understanding says, "The first recorded use of this form [Jehovah] dates from the 13th century C.E. [after Christ]. Raymundus Martini, a Spanish monk of the Dominican order, used it in his book Pugeo Fidei of the year 1270. Hebrew scholars generally favor ‘Yahweh’ as the most likely pronunciation" (pp. 884-885).

    New Testament Greek always uses the word "Lord," and never "Jehovah," even in quotes from the Old Testament (OT). Encyclopedia Judaica, Webster’s Encyclopedia, Jewish Encyclopedia, Encyclopedia Britannica, Universal Jewish Encyclopedia and countless others agree that the title "Jehovah" is erroneous, grammatically impossible, and was never used by the Jews.

    Catholic Answers "Stumpers for Jehovah's Witnesses" (Catholic Answers: San Diego, 2001).

  • aojumper
    aojumper

    Robhic,

    Please let us know the outcome of your study,I am very curious. I have a couple of nice sisters that come to the door, but they don't discuss things anymore, they only drop of that lastest issues and leave.

    K

  • undercover
    undercover

    Reading this thread, I had an epiphany(I think). Anyway, it hit me like a bolt of lightening:

    JWs like to use the illustration that since the Bible is thousands of years old and is the oldest book so carefully translated for centuries and centuries and is basically intact today that it has to be God's Word and that his spirit directed that it survive to today. If God(and/or his spirit) managed to keep this book intact and complete for us today, how come he couldn't keep his name, it's spelling, it's pronounceation and how and when it's to be used intact for us to use today?

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