The new testament is a Catholic book. The example of Jesus calling his mother 'woman' is not derogatory as the WTS would have you believe. Jesus was never disrespectful of or to his mother. The passage of calling Mary 'woman' is a reference of the OT title of the Woman who will crush the head of the serpent. Enmity between the two. Gen 3:15
Unike many of its other teachings, WT has been very consistent on this one point:
"Woman: Jesus’ use of this term when addressing his mother was consistent with his way of addressing other women (Joh 4:21) and was apparently considered polite in many contexts (Mt 15:28). It was not understood to be rude, unkind, or disrespectful in any way. Angels and the resurrected Jesus used this form of address when speaking to Mary Magdalene when she was weeping in sorrow at Jesus’ tomb; their words would surely not have been harsh or disrespectful in such a situation. (Joh 20:13, 15) On the torture stake, Jesus used the same term to address his mother when his great concern for her moved him to place her in the care of his beloved apostle John. (Joh 19:26) He made this arrangement because of the Scriptural obligation to honor one’s father and mother. (Ex 20:12; De 5:16; Mt 15:4) Several reference works confirm that using the term “woman” as a form of address could reflect respect and affection."
- From the NWT Study Bible, Gospel of John study notes.
It's also been addressed in questions from readers. Not only are you misrepresenting Watchtower's teaching on this manner, Watchtower actually proves its point with references.
Further, if calling Mary "woman" indicates that she was the woman prophesied about in Genesis, then are all the other women Jesus called "woman" also the woman in Genesis? Is there a Watchtoweresque woman "class" giving birth to Jesuses and adopting Jonadabs?
Also, what so we make of the man that Jesus called "Man"? Lest we forget, Jesus called himself the Son of Man. Draw your own conclusions!