So, I was just viewing an interview with Professor Yonathan Adler regarding the origins of judaism as an everyday practice of the masses. He makes a very convincing argument that the jews only became Torah observants in a generalized way around the beginning of the Hasmonean dynasty, between the 3rd and 2nd centuries BC. You can watch the interview here:
One thing that he said that stood out for me was this: Around Jesus' days, the authorities, out of respect for the jews' sensibilities, didn't mint coins in Judea depicting humans or animals or gods. Archaeology confirms this.
Now, in Mark, Matthew and Luke, Jesus answers a trap question from his adversaries regarding tax payment to the roman authority by asking one of his disciples for a coin, which is referred to as a "denarius" and points to the face on that coin, asking who is it of? "Caesar", everyone replies.
The accounts of the Roman tax episode in the gospels of Matthew, Mark and Luke differ in regard to the identity of the people who were questioning Jesus. In Matthew’s gospel it is the Pharisees who sent their disciples with the Herodians. In Mark’s gospel it is the chief priests, the scribes and the elders who sent the Pharisees and Herodians. In Luke’s gospel it is the scribes and the chief priests who sent spies.
In any case, such coins wouldn't be commonly circulating in Judea because any jew would become ritually impure just by touching that object! How, then, could:
a) Jesus' disciples, being Torah observants, have such a coin?
b) How could the Torah observant Jesus hold and show an idolatrous coin just to make a point this becoming ritually impure by it?
What are your thoughts?