I was always annoyed with my ex for using the words "pleasing to Jehovah" to describe certain actions. In actuality, he an his family (and I suspect others as well) seemed to be much more concerned with pleasing other Witnesses or members of their congregations. As an outsider, it seemed to me that they were always looking for "loopholes" to get by with certain practices, as if they thought they could trick Jehovah or that He wouldn't notice so long as they were not reproved or disfellowshipped.
My ex sister-in-law regularly spent the night with her boyfriend or he with her. Her JW parents adopted a "don't ask/don't tell" policy with her. But her mother made the comment to me once that she "hoped the brothers never found out about it." In other words, even though my mother-in-law KNEW her daughter was doing something that she could be disfellowshipped for, she still carried on and associated with her on a normal basis. This wouldn't bother me at all except for the fact that when her son confessed to fornication and was disfellowshipped, she shunned him! The kicker is, even though he told them about it long before he was DF'd, she (and her husband) continued to associate with him right up until the time he was "officially" DF'd.
My question is, how do they justify invoking the scripture saying not to associate with adulterers, fornicators, etc.... Where in that scripture does it say you can associate with such people until they are disfellowshipped? If they are trying to please Jehovah, wouldn't they want to follow the scripture even before they are directed to do so by the body of elders? Or, is Jehovah not really who they are trying to please?
Your thoughts, please. (And, by the way, this post in no way is meant to imply that I agree with shunning family members. I'm just using this as an example of the flagrant hypocricy of my ex's family!)
Worldlygirl