Jesus told Mary Magdalene`I am ascending to my God and your God'
Why didn't Jesus say`I am ascending to our God'
Awake! April 22,2005,page 9
by badboy 7 Replies latest jw friends
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Crumpet
I don't think anyone told the bible writers about Orwell's rule for fiction:
Never use two words when one will do!
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iiz2cool
He was originally speaking of himself, then added her as an afterthought.
Walter
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badboy
nOT SURE IF THAT EXPLAINS IT!
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googlemagoogle
what's the difference? what's the big deal? does it have any impact on your life and my life? hmmm... why didn't i write "our lives"?
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kls
I do see what you mean ,It's like the jws have the ownership and their God only love's the them .Since the jws believe they are the one's who will be saved they know their God personnaly.
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Pleasuredome
why didnt he just say "i'm ascending to myself"?
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Oroborus21
Greetings!
Because he WASN'T asscending to "himself". He was clarifying for Mary and for us (since the writers chose to record these words for us) that he stood in a subordinate position to his father, Almighty God Yahweh (Yabe, Jehovah).
He was further reinforcing, perhaps because he discerned that there may be some doubt on the part of Mary or even some feelings that she was unworthy of worshipping the same god, that HIS GOD was the same God as HER God. Saying (the Aramaic equivalent) of "Our God" may not have served that purpose as well. By doing this, he was encouraging and fortifying her faith and reaffirming that she was doing well in her belief and faith.
-Eduardo