by little t 19 Replies latest jw experiences
Has anyone been in the position of losing scriptural grounds for divorce?
What forgives a guilty mate?
A. Kissing
B. Fondling
C. Abstinence
D. Intercourse
E. Ejaculation
What does the Society say?
Q. Is it possible for a pedophile to misuse sex?
Q. Is it possible for a pedophile to "steal" the grounds for divorce from an innocent mate?
Your comments please.
T
pretty much a return to the marriage bed it what clinches the Forfeiting of Spiritual Grounds.
Q. Is it possible for a pedophile to "steal" the grounds for divorce from an innocent mate?
unsure of what you mean.
Wierd question.
I think the sociery's position is that intercourse after knowing of the adultery is the point at which scriptural grounds are revoked.
As far as the pedophile issue; I would think the same thing applies. If the innocent mate becomes aware of the sexual misconduct and then resumes intercourse then ; cancel the grounds.
Don't know if this is the WTS position exactly, but is how I understood it - though I never considered the pedophile angle till now.
Jeff
Simple kissing? No
Fondling the breasts? No
Fondling the sex organs Yes
Ejaculation Yes
Abstinance indicates no forgiveness
Intercourse? Big Yes but not the only way
Sticking it in any orifice? Yes
Rubbing pelvises through the clothes to stimulate? Yes
The pedofile thing is over my head
hey welcome little t, just saw it was your first post.
Yes it depends if you knew of the adultery first is the key issue.
If you are unaware your partners affair then no you have mot forfeited you scriptual divorce rights.
Oh hey thats not littletoe. I thought what a strange question for littletoe to be asking.
Welcome little t. Care to elaborate a little?
YES
Oh hey thats not littletoe. I thought what a strange question for littletoe to be asking.
IP SEC, I thought the same thing and had to edit my reply.
I might be wrong, but I was once told by an elder that the "innocent" mate, the one that didn't commit adultery, has to decide in a certain amount of time whether the marriage is worth saving. In other words, if he/she withholds sex for a long time, but doesn't make a move on the divorce, eventually the "guilty" party can also pursue a scriptural divorce, because the "innocent" one is showing they don't forgive by not allowing the "guilty" one back in the marriage bed.
*** fy chap. 13 pp. 158-159 If Marriage Is at the Breaking Point ***
As mentioned in Chapter 2 of this book, fornication is the only Scriptural ground for divorce with the possibility of remarriage. (Footnote: The Bible term translated "fornication" includes acts of adultery, homosexuality, bestiality, and other willful illicit acts involving use of the sex organs.) (Matthew 19:9) If you have definite proof that your marriage mate has been unfaithful, then you face a difficult decision. Will you continue in the marriage or get a divorce? There are no rules.
So Rule #1: Fornication is the only act that permits divorce. Pedaphilia would qualify if "sex organs" were involved.
But Rule #2: You have to prove the unfaithful mate was molesting:
***
w77 10/1 p. 607 Questions from Readers ***Jesus himself stated that for his followers the only ground for divorce, such as would free a person for remarriage, is if one's mate commits porneia, gross sexual immorality. (Matt. 19:9) Would there be sufficient ground for divorce if a Christian wife merely suspected that her husband was guilty of adultery? No, for the Christian Greek Scriptures carry forward the principle of a matter's being established by two or three witnesses, as a balanced sense of justice requires. (John 8:17, 18; 1 Tim. 5:19; Heb. 10:28) So, if a wife merely suspected her husband of adultery, but he denied it and there were no witnesses to confirm it, she would not have sufficient basis for establishing with the Christian congregation that she had a right to divorce him and thus be free to remarry.
