The scripture in Jeremiah below clearly says the 70 years would end when babylon was conquered. (concensus:539BC)
Yet the scripture in Zechariah below (written circa 517/518) says that they were still in the seventy years period at that time.
Is there a way to reconcile these two scrips?
*** Rbi8 Jeremiah 25:12-14 ***
12 "‘And it must occur that when seventy years have been fulfilled I shall call to account against the king of Babylon and against that nation,’ is the utterance of Jehovah, ‘their error, even against the land of the Chal·de´ans, and I will make it desolate wastes to time indefinite. 13 And I will bring in upon that land all my words that I have spoken against it, even all that is written in this book that Jeremiah has prophesied against all the nations. 14 For even they themselves, many nations and great kings, have exploited them as servants; and I will repay them according to their activity and according to the work of their hands.’"
*** Rbi8 Zechariah 1:12 ***
12
So the angel of Jehovah answered and said: "O Jehovah of armies, how long will you yourself not show mercy to Jerusalem and to the cities of Judah, whom you have denounced these seventy years?"
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Thoughts?
-ithinkisee