What are the real reasons Joseph refused to sleep with Potiphar's wife?
The watchtower and others teach that Joseph refused to commit adultery. Specifically to the JWs, we teach that Joseph, somehow, knew that adultery was wrong, despite not having any specific rule or writing to teach him so. Never the less, written or not, we know that women on those years were similar to material possessions. The act of taking another woman, sexually, was not officially condemned until later on. My theory is the following...
Adultery as defined, is the act of having a sexual relation with a woman that belongs to another man. What I notice from reading the biblical accounts of Joseph, is that when she approaches him, he does not refute on the grounds of adultery. The bible does not say so. If nothing else is added, you could safely assume it to be the case. Joseph knew what adultery was and he intrinsically indicated he would not commit such wicked act against God. However, while no adultery (see definition again) is mentioned, something else is. Joseph proceeds to compare taking her sexually as being the same as if he took anything material from his master. He mentions to her that his master entrusted him with "all his belongings" (sounds familiar?), except her. He also adds that his master does not have a clue or an inventory of anything that is under his watch. She was a material belonging on his eyes, as women were in that time of history. Therefore, if he did not dare to take a vessel or piece of gold from his master, despite him not knowing it was there, how would he dare to take his wife?
Was the sexual relation on itself the "wicked act" he refused to commit, or was it the fact that he was going to take something that did not belong to him, as women were comparable to cattle on those days.
As usual, I await your candid comments.