by RevFrank 6 Replies latest jw friends
A few days ago I was just grazing through a copy of mine the, Septuagint LXX and I ran into an interesting section. Psalm 83:18...there is no such verse. If anything the verses stop at verse 15. It seems that this verse, along with 1John 5:7, went the same way.
And the Witnesses are always showing us in christiadim that Jehovah is in verse 18...yet no verse is found.
How was a verse which was never in the Septuagint found its way into the Bible? Consider 1 John 5:7 for referense.
Hmm no. There is a difference in numerotation in the LXX. What you are looking for is in LXX Psalm 82:19.
How was a verse which was never in the Septuagint found its way into the Bible?
Narkissos is, as usual, spot on regarding the difference in numeration of the LXX. This came about because Psalms 9 and 10 in the hebrew (Masoretic) text are a single psalm (Psalm 9) in the LXX. So the psalm numbers beyond Psalm 9 differ by one.
Psalms 147 in hebrew is split into two (Psalms 146 and 147) in the LXX so the total number of psalms in both languages is consistent.
It is also worth noting that the Septuagint itself is a translation from Hebrew into Greek so your question could be phrased "how did a verse in a translation of the hebrew find its way into the original ?". Prior to the discovery of the Dead Sea Scrolls you might have decided the LXX was more reliable because existing copies were older than the oldest hebrew manuscripts. That is no longer true.
Earnest
For some reason, mine calls it out as the 17th verse of Ps 82 (?)
Earnest, nice to "see" you. (And I was wrong on "numerotation" -- French showing here.)
As you know the Dead Sea Scrolls have actually renewed interest in the Septuagint, inasmuch as they reveal an ancient diversity in Hebrew editions of the texts (some pretty close to the LXX). And the LXX is still the main "Old Testament" of the "New Testament". So it is always a good read.
TD I don't know what your edition is; there is also a numeration difference between English Bibles and Hebrew editions, which reckon the superscription as v. 1. For this reason your 83:18 is 83:19 in French Bibles for instances.
Anyway your v. 17 includes my v. 18 and 19.
That's the point..Why is it some where else? As for the word, "jehovah," a 15th century monk, catholic at it's best, created the word. And what else has the Vatican doesn't want many too see and read?
RevFrank,
Why is it some where else?
Earnest answered:
This came about because Psalms 9 and 10 in the hebrew (Masoretic) text are a single psalm (Psalm 9) in the LXX. So the psalm numbers beyond Psalm 9 differ by one.Psalms 147 in hebrew is split into two (Psalms 146 and 147) in the LXX so the total number of psalms in both languages is consistent.
Oh and you won't find "Jehovah" in the LXX anyway. It is kurios, "Lord," instead. A few ancient LXX manuscripts do have the Tetragrammaton (YHWH in old Hebrew letters within the Greek text) in some places but afaik the Tetragrammaton was never found transliterated into Greek letters (forming an equivalent of "Yahweh" or "Jehovah") in a LXX manuscript.
