Could the passage clearly refer to God's "holy spirit," His active force, but also, could it be, pictorial of someone else, someone's personal "activity" on earth? Someone's ministry? A Human's Activity?For instance, I noticed, in your list of scriptures dealing with John the 16th chapter, you SKIPPED verse 15 .
Why not discuss this one.
It says:
"That one [Spirit of Truth] will glorify me [Jesus], because he will RECEIVE FROM IS MINE and will declare it to you."
Question: How does the Holy Spirit of God, God's Active Force, "RECEIVE FROM WHAT IS MINE [that which belongs to Jesus]"?
In fact, how does the Holy Spirit "Receive" ANYTHING FROM JESUS ?
How does this take place, if this verse applies EXCLUSIVELY and TOTALLY to God's Active Spirit, alone?
Again, How Does God's Active Force "receive" anything from Jesus, God's Son?
Any thoughts?
If you look at my post again you will see that I also referenced John 16:15 as part of the context. You might find Christ's words as quoted in the next chapter at John 17:6-10 shed some light on your questions as to what he meant at John 16:15. There in his prayer to the Father on behalf of his disciples, he states "for the words that you gave to me I have given to them". There, the Christian pattern is revealed. The Father reveals to the Son, the Son reveals to the human disciples, with NO HUMAN MEDIATOR between the Father and the Son while he was on the earth. In chapter 16, he explained that after he had left the earth, the Holy Spirit of God would come into the picture, with no reference to a HUMAN.
Since most do not question the personage of the Father and the Son, most have no trouble understanding Christ's words in chapter 17. Most Christians also do not question the personage of the Holy Spirit, which you reject and choose not to debate. So, on your premise that the Holy Spirit is NOT a person, you would have us believe that Christ might instead be refering to some future HUMAN, although he does not say so.
Anything that cannot be proven otherwise is theoretically possible, but is it likely based on the context and what was said? More importantly, would not Christ have made it more clear to his future disciples to expect to follow another HUMAN, if that was his intention? Especially in view of his warnings about being misled by false prophets coming in his name?
I am not arguing for (or against) a belief in the Holy Spirit as a personage or part of the Holy Trinity, as most Christians would, for understanding John 16:15. However, in view of the context and the clear references to the Holy Spirit, which is nowhere else in the Bible (to my knowledge) personified by a HUMAN or vice-versa, then I would NOT be inclined to accept your premise that Christ was HINTING that he MIGHT just use a HUMAN for something as important as future spiritual revelations to his disciples.
And, as I mentioned before, would not an understanding of something this important have been previously argued and commented upon in some theological reference if there were any reasonable credence to be given it? Can you provide any other reference whatsoever in defense of your premise? Or, has Christ spoken to you about this matter personally?
I'll ask you again straight out -- do you claim to be this prophet of whom you speak or know his identity? If so, what are your qualifications to speak for God? I would think that Almighty God could be a little more convincing, wouldn't you?
Edited by - AhHah on 21 October 2000 1:56:42
Edited by - AhHah on 21 October 2000 2:17:29