those below are the differents
1. The forward to the Kingdom Interlinear Translation (KIT),1985 edition, on page 8 states, ?Our primary desire has been to seek not the approval of men but that of God, by rendering the truth of his inspired Word as purely and as consistently as our dedicated abilities make possible. There is no benefit in self-deception." On page 9 it is stated, "We offer no paraphrase of the Scriptures. Our endeavor throughout has been to give as literal a translation as possible where the modern English idiom allows for it or where the thought content is not hidden due to any awkwardness in the literal rendition. In this way, we can best meet the desire of those who are scrupulous for getting, as nearly as possible word for word, the exact statement of the original." The NWT translates Jn 14:14 as, ?If you ask anything in my name, I will do it.? If the NWT is the most accurate word for word translation of the Bible, why does it completely omit the word ?me? after the phrase ?If you ask?, even though the word ?me? is in the original Greek. See Kingdom Interlinear Translation (KIT). If the NWT correctly translated Jn 14:14 from the original Greek and included the word ?me? after ?ask? in this verse, how would this verse read? How could a person ?ask? Jesus for something without praying to him? How can the NWT be ?rendering the truth of his inspired Word as purely? as possible , and how can it be ?as literal a translation as possible? when the ?translators? knowingly omit this word (?me?) so that this verse does not contradict the teachings of the WTS?
2. If the present earth will never be destroyed or depopulated, why does Zeph 1:2-3 say, ?I shall without fail finish everything off the surface of the ground,? is the utterance of Jehovah. ?I shall finish off earthling man and beast? and I will cut off mankind from the surface of the ground, is the utterance of Jehovah?? The Hebrew word translated here as ?finish off? in the NWT is ?cuwph? (Strong?s # 05486) which means ?to cease; to come to an end?, according to Strong?s Hebrew Dictionary. How can this be if the WTS is correct and faithful Witnesses will survive Armageddon and live forever in paradise on the present earth? In addition, Isa 65:17 says, ?For here I am creating new heavens and a NEW earth, and the former things will not be called to mind?? If the present earth will never be destroyed, why will God be ?creating? a ?new? earth? Notice that this verse does not say ?cleanse?, but ?create?. What do the words ?create? and ?new? mean to you? Similarly, 2Pet 3:10-13 says, ?Yet Jehovah?s day will come as a thief, in which the heavens will pass a way with a hissing noise, but the elements being intensely hot will be dissolved, and the earth and the works in it will be discovered. Since all these things are thus to be dissolved, what sort of persons ought you to be? through which [the] heavens being on fire will be dissolved and [the] elements being intensely hot will melt! But there are new heavens and a NEW EARTH that we are awaiting, according to his promise?? How can people live forever in paradise on this present earth, if the earth will ?be dissolved? and ?melt? and if we are awaiting a ?new? earth?
3. In Phil 2:9, the NWT inserts the word "[other]" even though it doesn't appear in the original Greek. See Gr-Engl Interlinear. Why does the WTS alter scripture by adding the word ?[other]? to this verse? Is the word "Jehovah" a name? See Exo 6:3, Ps 83:18, and Isa 42:8. How would the verse read if the word "other" had not been inserted? What does scripture say about adding words to the Bible? See Prov 30:5-6. If Christians are persecuted for the sake of Jehovah's name, why did Christ tell the first Christians that they would be persecuted for the sake of his (Jesus') name, instead of Jehovah's (Mt 24:9, Mk 13:13, Lk 21:12,17, Jn 15:21, and Acts 9:16)? If the name "Jehovah" is so important, then why does Acts 4:12 say, "Furthermore, there is no salvation in anyone else, for there is not another name (Jesus Christ vs 10) under heaven that has been given among men by which we must get saved"? If the teachings of the WTS are correct, would this not have been the logical place for God to have used the name "YHWH" or "Jehovah"?