In the old thread above I argue that the number 70 was meant and understood by ancient Semitic people as symbolic of a generation and not a literal number.
Was 70 CE not year 70 either?
While the number 70 is used symbolically in the Bible, the quantity is literal.
2 Chronicles 36:21
לְמַלֹּאות דְּבַר־יְהוָה בְּפִי יִרְמְיָהוּ עַד־רָצְתָה הָאָרֶץ אֶת־שַׁבְּתוֹתֶיהָ כָּל־יְמֵי הָשַּׁמָּה שָׁבָתָה לְמַלֹּאות שִׁבְעִים שָׁנָֽה ׃ פ
2 Chronicles 36:21 To fulfil the word of the LORD by the mouth of Jeremiah, until the land had enjoyed her sabbaths: for as long as she lay desolate she kept sabbath, to fulfil threescore and ten years. = 70
The Bible uses this word having the numerical value of 70.
(I posted in another thread that the Israelites were flagrantly raping the land by not allowing her to enjoy Sabbatical rest as prescribed in the Torah. How many years exactly did the land not keep Sabbath is not known but the sentence imposed was 70 years of desolation so the land could rest.) 537BCE+70=607BCE, assuming 537 marks the end of the desolation.