Narkissos,
All the WT hogwash is built on Greek vocabulary, morphology and etymology (the latter being essential to their interpretation of parousia as "presence"). Still Jesus and his disciples were not supposed to speak Greek...
Leolaia,
I have noticed a tendency in the WTS' use of Greek grammar and lexicography to generally prefer the etymological or earliest-attested meaning and to insist (without any clear rationale given) that this meaning is the one relevant to the biblical text.
Oh yes, there is some rationale. And it's not always the earliest attested meaning. They basically look at the etymology whenever they can get away with a ridiculous interpretation that suits their needs.
The case of parousia is an interesting one because this verb embraces several different event structures, the basic stative sense (of being "present") and the common sense involving a change of state (of "becoming present," that is, coming and arriving). The WTS insists again on the etymological meaning even though the verb was easily capable of both meanings.
Here is one example:
***Rbi8 p. 1576 5B Christ?s Presence (Parousia) ***
The Greek noun pa·rou·si´a literally means a ?being alongside,? the expression being drawn from the preposition pa·ra´ (alongside) and ou·si´a (a ?being?).
The Polish verb "przybyć" literally means "to be" (być) "alongside" (przy). When you put the two morphemes together, however, they mean "come", or "arrive" and never to "be alongside". However, this is exactly the kind of fallacy that WTS try to commit when manipulating with the meaning of pa-rou-si'a.
The historical meaning of individual morphemes may have nothing to do with the semantic intentions of the contemporary user of a word that is made up of those morphemes.
Watchtower linguistics.
Pole