"Scholar" writes:
This is simply your opinion and I disagree with this. You cite no scholarly or exegetical support for your opinion so I suggest you demonstrate why your claim is so. I would argue that all of what is said in verse 11 was included in the seventy years which was the land being devastated and servitude to Babylon. That is what the text plainly reads.
Yes, I had understood that you were (not yet) in agreement. My previous post demonstrated the claim; to wit:
the seventy years of servitude began before the desolation of Jerusalem. Cf. Jer. 27:1,6-8 [note past perfect tense in vs 6] and 28:1,2,11 [where the servitude is already under way]. If the Land were indeed "devastated" for seventy years following the fall of Jerusalem and the subsequent Exile, the 'seventy years servitude' would necessarily have ended roughly two decades before the End of the neo-Babylonian Empire.
When read in the context of chapters 27 and 28 the text in Jer. 25:11f reads other than you argue.