John 12:24 says: "Except a corn of wheat fall into the ground and DIE, it abideth alone; but if it DIE, it bringeth forth much fruit." Is this a scientifically accurate statement? Can a DEAD seed germinate and go on to produce fruit?
scout575
JoinedPosts by scout575
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Is John 12:24 inspired of God?
by scout575 injohn 12:24 says: "except a corn of wheat fall into the ground and die, it abideth alone; but if it die, it bringeth forth much fruit.
" is this a scientifically accurate statement?
can a dead seed germinate and go on to produce fruit?
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Is there a problem with Matthew 12:40?
by scout575 inmatthew 12:40b says: "so shall the son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.
" if someone on this site were to say that jesus was 'in the heart of the earth for three days and three nights' would some helpful soul reply with a correction?
does this bible verse need to be corrected?
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scout575
Matthew 12:40b says: "So shall the son of man be three days and THREE nights in the heart of the earth." If someone on this site were to say that Jesus was 'in the heart of the earth for three days and three nights' would some helpful soul reply with a correction? Does this Bible verse need to be corrected?
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What weird things have you read in the bible?
by stillAwitness inthe fact that nimrod's name means: "he stirred up the whole earth to rebel"
and yet ezra's name means: "help"
what caused nimord's mother to name him something that had such a negative meaning and yet he turned out to be just that?
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scout575
I mustbreakaway- that Scripture you paraphrased is from Zechariah 13:6. Its applied by the WTS to the discipline that JWs inflict on apostates. Watch out, your "intense lovers" are after you!
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Does the Bible's '2 witnesses' rule give evidence of divine inspiration?
by scout575 inat deut 17:6 the law is given that states that for the death penalty to be imposed on someone guilty of a capital offence, there have to be 2 or 3 witnesses to the crime.
if there weren't at least 2 witnesses then no conviction could be made and therefore no punishment meted out to the offender.. consider the following scenario: an israelite girl is being sexually abused by her israelite father ( incest was a capital offence under the mosaic law - leviticus 18:6,29 ).
she approaches the city elders and tells them what her father is doing to her.
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scout575
Fairmind: Child molestation was just as much a crime in Israelite times as it is today ( Under the Mosiac law it warranted the death penalty ). I completely agree that suspected cases of child abuse should be reported to the police. I pity the abused Israelite girl for whom there was no police force - she just had to carry on being molested. Shame that 'Almighty God' couldn't have come up with some way of protecting her. Shame that today's police service is better equipped to deal with child abuse than 'Almighty God' ever was.
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Ever wondered about Colossians 1:23?
by scout575 incolossians 1:23b claims that by the time of writing, the good news had been preached, "to every creature ( "all creation" - nwt ) which is under heaven.
" had the good news really been preached in 'all creation under heaven' when colossians was written?
was this statement inspired by an all-knowing god or does it just reflect reflect the ignorance of the time, as to the size of the world?
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scout575
Fjtoth - Are you saying that you genuinely believe that within a few decades of the inception of Christianity, the Apostles were in the Australian wilderness preaching to the native people there?
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Ever wondered about Colossians 1:23?
by scout575 incolossians 1:23b claims that by the time of writing, the good news had been preached, "to every creature ( "all creation" - nwt ) which is under heaven.
" had the good news really been preached in 'all creation under heaven' when colossians was written?
was this statement inspired by an all-knowing god or does it just reflect reflect the ignorance of the time, as to the size of the world?
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scout575
If it meant the Roman Empire, then why doesn't the text say that? Also, the Roman Empire included Britain, which had been colonized by the time that Colossians was written. Had Christians really got as far as Britain just a few decades after the start of Christianity? As for the good news having been preached all around the world by the time that Colossians was written, had the good news really been preached to the aboriginal populations of Australia and America? Why is there no mention in the NT of Christianity reaching these places? The NT only refers to Christianity being preached in places around the area of the Mediterranean and the Near East.
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Ever wondered about Colossians 1:23?
by scout575 incolossians 1:23b claims that by the time of writing, the good news had been preached, "to every creature ( "all creation" - nwt ) which is under heaven.
" had the good news really been preached in 'all creation under heaven' when colossians was written?
was this statement inspired by an all-knowing god or does it just reflect reflect the ignorance of the time, as to the size of the world?
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scout575
Colossians 1:23b claims that by the time of writing, the good news had been preached, "to every creature ( "all creation" - NWT ) which is under heaven." Had the good news really been preached in 'ALL creation under heaven' when Colossians was written? Was this statement inspired by an all-knowing god or does it just reflect reflect the ignorance of the time, as to the size of the world?
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What weird things have you read in the bible?
by stillAwitness inthe fact that nimrod's name means: "he stirred up the whole earth to rebel"
and yet ezra's name means: "help"
what caused nimord's mother to name him something that had such a negative meaning and yet he turned out to be just that?
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scout575
What about this little 'gem' from 1 Corinthians 14:35: "If they will learn any thing let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in church." Good thing that husbands know far more about the Bible than their wives, that way they're able to answer their ignorant wives if they ever have a Bible question.
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Does 2 Samuel 12:15 show the god of the Bible to be a god of justice?
by scout575 inafter king david commits adulery with bathaheba and arranges for her husband uriah to be killed in battle, does god execute the death penalty on david as prescribed by the mosaic law for adulterers?
( deut 22:22 ) no.
rather than executing david, what punishment does god mete out?
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scout575
Hi Imustbreakaway,
Notice too how the Bible later tries to downplay the sins of David at 1 Kings 15: 5. Just one sin according to that verse, when the reality was far from that. Were the Bible writers little more than ancient 'spin doctors'?
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Does the Bible's '2 witnesses' rule give evidence of divine inspiration?
by scout575 inat deut 17:6 the law is given that states that for the death penalty to be imposed on someone guilty of a capital offence, there have to be 2 or 3 witnesses to the crime.
if there weren't at least 2 witnesses then no conviction could be made and therefore no punishment meted out to the offender.. consider the following scenario: an israelite girl is being sexually abused by her israelite father ( incest was a capital offence under the mosaic law - leviticus 18:6,29 ).
she approaches the city elders and tells them what her father is doing to her.
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scout575
Funkyderek: Whilst the law at Deut.17:6 obviously does have some merit in that it would, in some cases, protect the innocent from unwarranted punishment, the posting by Dune, and my own scenario shows how it can also allow for the guilty to go unpunished and for the innocent to be punished. Someone who believes in the God of the Bible might be tempted to wonder why his all-powerful, all-loving, all-just and all-wise God didn't come up with a method of justice that is superior to the one at Deut.17:6.