Sad emo: You raised the question that the stoning of the man found working on the sabbath happened BEFORE there was a specific penalty given for this 'crime' ( Numbers 15:32-36 ). True. You then say that there may have been a 'progressive revelation', whereby when a written law was given, the punishment for 'sabbath breaking' might have been reduced in severity to being, 'put outside the camp', rather than the stoning that God decreed at Numbers 15:36.
At Leviticus 24:10-16, we read of a case where someone "blasphemed" the name of the Lord' ( verse 11 ). Here, as in the above case of sabbath violation, no specifc punishment had so far been decreed by God. Therefore the Israelites wanted God to reveal to them what punishment to inflict on the 'blasphemer'. God's answer was that the offender should be stoned ( verse 14 ). Was this a 'one off'? Was there a 'progressive revelation' whereby when the written law arrived, the punishment for blasphemy was reduced to being 'put outside the camp'? No. At verse 16, God says: "And he that blasphemeth the name of the Lord, he shall surely be PUT TO DEATH, and all the congregation shall certainly STONE HIM, as well THE STRANGER, as he that is BORN IN THE LAND, when he blasphemeth the name of the Lord, shall he be PUT TO DEATH."
Quite clearly, God here decrees that the punishment for blasphemy will CONTINUE to be execution by stoning, for 'stranger' aswell as native born Israelite. There was NO 'progressive revelation' here, no 'softening' of the punishment from stoning, to being 'put outside the camp. Notice too that here AGAIN the expression, "put to death", means execution ( stoning ) and not being 'put outside the camp'. When the expression "put to death" appears at Exodus 31:15, in connection with 'sabbath breaking', why should its meaning become, not execution', but being 'put outside the camp'?
Are you trying to find a 'nicer' God in the Bible, than the one that is actually there?