ellderwho,
Perhaps you should start exegeting those passages, because none of these are helping you.
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Mat 16:27 For the Son of man is destined to come in the gloryl of his Father with his angels, and then he will recompense each one according to his behavior.
Mar 8:38 For whoever becomes ashamed of me and my words in this adulterous and sinful generation, the Son of man will also be ashamed of him when he arrives in the glory of his Father with the holy angels."
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Luke 9:26 also speaks of Jesus coming "in the glory... of the holy angels." To come in the glory of them does not mean that he possess their glory or that they share it somehow.
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Joh 17:22 Also, I have given them the glorythat you have given me, in order that they may be one just as we are one.
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How does this help you? If God giving glory to Jesus makes Jesus God, Jesus giving glory to his disciples makes his disciples God.
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Heb 1:3 He is the reflection of[his] glory and the exact representation of his very being, and he sustains all things by the word of his power; and after he had made a purification for our sins he sat down on the right hand of the Majesty in lofty places.------------------------
Can't see how this one helps you either. He still doesn't possess God's glory. He doesn't have it shared with him. He reflects it or radiates it. It is not a glory that becomes Jesus' or that God is sharing with Jesus. It is still God's.
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From your response, the onus, my friend is upon you to explain a seperate "glory" for Christ.
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Gladly. Luke 9:26 does it. You have two options. Either God, Jesus and the angels all share one glory, or they all have a unique glory. Based upon that text it is one or the other, you cannot have it one way for God and Jesus and another for them and the angels, for the syntax is the same for all three. Either way you want to look at it, this one pretty well shootts the Trinitarian doctrine in the butt.
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Same here, you arbitrarily create a scenerio unique to your own perspective without scriptual backing.
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Actually I'm just taking what the text says for what it says. It speaks of the glory that God had with Jesus. If a person is with another, and one has glory and the other has glory, there is nothing that says they are sharing glory. It is absolute eisegesis to say that they are sharing it.
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Your argument is still with scripture. Judges has nothing to do with what Jehovah directly states, as he is desribing his attributes.
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No, my argument is with you taking that text out of context. What does a text dealing with idols have to do with Jesus???? Nothing! You are abusing God's word, and I can confidently say that it is something he does not take kindly to. Ehud is directly said to be a savior. So either this is a contradiction, or you are taking this text out of context. I will go with the latter.
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Im sure you would say the same of Isaiah 45:5. Because it directly clashes with your Jo.1:1
Isa 45:5 I am Jehovah, and there is no one else. With the exception of me there is no God. I shall closely gird you, although you have not known me
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I will again note that you are taking the text out of context. It is a text dealing with idols. I suggest you start reading in Isaiah 40 and establish yourself the context of what is being discussed. Why are you so determined to take these passages out of context???
Mondo