But, if Christians strongly support the legal right to commit idolatry and blasphemy, why do so many Christians vehemently oppose the legal right to have freedom to marry someone of the same sex? It is the height of hypocrisy, and also is very illogical, to support the freedom of idolatry while opposing the freedom of gay marriage.The Argument Based on Harming Your Neighbor
The New Testament appears to teach that the only things which are actually sins in God's eyes are things which harm your neighbor. For example, Paul, James, and John all say that the only commandments are to love God, love others, and do no harm to your neighbor. (See Romans 13:8-10; James 2:8; 1 John 3:23)
Paul even goes so far as to declare that nothing is sinful in itself, but it becomes sinful if you hurt others by your actions:
Romans 14:20-22 (ESV): "...Everything is indeed clean, but it is wrong for anyone to make another stumble by what he eats. It is good not to eat meat or drink wine or do anything that causes your brother to stumble..."
Romans 14:13-14 (ESV): "...I know and am persuaded in the Lord Jesus that nothing is unclean in itself, but it is unclean for anyone who thinks it unclean."Titus 1:15 (ESV): "To the pure, all things are pure, ..."
1 Timothy 4:3-5 (ESV): "...For everything created by God is good, and nothing is to be rejected if it is received with thanksgiving, for it is made holy by the word of God and prayer."
A couple very important, thought-provoking questions to ask yourself, are: How is gay marriage or homosexuality harming other people? If gay marriage or homosexuality is doing no harm to anyone else, then why do you focus on attacking it so often and so strongly?
Why do so many Christians condemn gays and lesbians?
Sodom and GomorrahA large number of Christians believe the Bible teaches that God destroyed the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah for homosexuality. This is actually taught nowhere in the Bible. The actual sins of Sodom listed in the Scriptures are:
- Attempted rape of angels (Genesis 19:5)
- Pride (Ezekiel 16:49)
- Excess of food without sharing (Ezekiel 16:49)
- Living in prosperous ease without helping the poor (Ezekiel 16:49)
- Haughtiness before God (Ezekiel 16:50)
- Buying, selling, planting, and building while paying no attention to God (Luke 17:28-29)
- Being ungodly (2 Peter 2:6)
- Sexual immorality and lusting after strange flesh [angels?] (Jude 1:7)
So, as you can see, the sin of Sodom was not primarily (or perhaps, even at all) homosexuality. Jude 1:7 is the only verse which could be interpreted as referring to homosexuality, but more likely, it refers to the gang attempting to rape the angels in Genesis 19:5.
An entire false tradition has arisen among many Christians that God destroyed Sodom because of their homosexuality, when, as you can see, is not taught in the Bible. There may have been many homosexuals living in Sodom, but that is not the reason God destroyed the city.
(The sin of Sodom actually appears to have been much closer to the current behavior of the rich and powerful Republicans and Tea Party in the United States.)
Romans 1:21-28 (ESV): "...they did not honor him as God ... and exchanged the glory of the immortal God for images resembling mortal man and birds and animals and creeping things. Therefore God gave them up in the lusts of their hearts ... because they exchanged the truth about God for a lie and worshiped and served the creature rather than the Creator, ... God gave them up to dishonorable passions. For their women exchanged natural relations for those that are contrary to nature; and the men likewise gave up natural relations with women and were consumed with passion for one another, men committing shameless acts with men and receiving in themselves the due penalty for their error. And since they did not see fit to acknowledge God, God gave them up to a debased mind to do what ought not to be done." A close look at the first chapter of Romans will reveal that the Apostle
Paul is condemning the different practices and rituals connected to the pagan worship of idols, including the burning lust involved in temple sex and orgies. Paul isn't speaking of monogamous, loving, committed relationships between two gay men or two lesbian women. Since Paul is focusing on the sins of idolatry and lust here, I don't see how it is proper to try to use this chapter to condemn all homosexuality.
Christians don't say that
all heterosexual sex is sinful just because Jesus condemned lustfully looking at women, so why should we say that
all homosexual sex is sinful when Paul condemns "
burning with passion/lust" in
Romans 1
. I believe that would be "
going beyond what is written." (
1 Corinthians 4:6)
In addition, even though Paul seemingly wrote that lesbianism was "
contrary to nature," Paul said the same thing in
1 Corinthians 11:14-16 regarding women having short hair. So it's possible Paul used this term regarding things which were looked down upon by the local community. The Apostles often wrote about forsaking certain things because people in the immediate area condemned those things. (
Acts 15:19-21; 1 Corinthians 9:22)
Leviticus 20:13 (ESV):
"If a man lies with a male as with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination; they shall surely be put to death; their blood is upon them."First off, as Christians, we can safely set aside the statements on homosexuality in the book of Leviticus or other Old Testament Laws of Moses, because
(1)these were only given to the Jewish people,
(2) they were only temporary, and
(3) they have expired. (See
Hebrews chapter 8) In addition, if we are going to follow Leviticus, then Paul and James, the brother of Jesus, both say that
we must follow the entire Law of Moses. (
Galatians 5:3; James 2:10)
Look at some of the commands in Leviticus before and after the homosexuality command:
Leviticus 19:19 (ESV): "You shall keep my statutes. ... You shall not sow your field with two kinds of seed, nor shall you wear a garment of cloth made of two kinds of material."
Leviticus 19:27 (ESV): "You shall not round off the hair on your temples or mar the edges of your beard."
Leviticus 20:18 (ESV): "If a man lies with a woman during her menstrual period and uncovers her nakedness, he has made naked her fountain, and she has uncovered the fountain of her blood. Both of them shall be cut off from among their people."
So if Christians must condemn homosexuality based on Leviticus, Christian men must also have beards and you must never sleep next to your wife during her period. In addition, Christians would never be able to wear modern clothing made of different materials.
A lot of Christians make a big deal about the fact that Leviticus refers to homosexual intercourse as an "abomination." However, the Law of Moses also says eating pork, rabbit, or lobster is an "abomination" too.(Deuteronomy chapter 14) If you're going to follow the homosexuality commands of the Mosaic Law, then you should follow the rules against eating pork and lobster. Otherwise, you are being a hypocrite.
The book of Leviticus, in the very same chapter as the command against gay sex, explains why all these commands were given:
"And you shall not walk in the customs of the nation that I am driving out before you, for they did all these things, and therefore I detested them. ... I am the LORD your God, who has separated you from the peoples. You shall therefore separate the clean beast from the unclean, and the unclean bird from the clean. You shall not make yourselves detestable by beast or by bird or by anything with which the ground crawls, which I have set apart for you to hold unclean. You shall be holy to me, for I the LORD am holy and have separated you from the peoples, that you should be mine." (Leviticus 20:23-26, ESV)
These commandments were primarily given by Yahweh to show a distinction, a separation in the eyes of the world, of God's chosen nation, to make them different and unique compared to all other nations on earth at that time. God was also banning things which the pagan nations associated with worshiping idols, such as orgies, temple sex, and prostitution. The Law of Moses was never intended to be permanent requirements for all people at all times, as Paul writes so eloquently in Galatians:
"So then, the law was our [the Jews'] guardian until Christ came, in order that we might be justified by faith. But now that faith has come, we are no longer under a guardian, for in Christ Jesus you are all sons of God, through faith. For as many of you as were baptized into Christ have put on Christ. There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is no male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus." (Galatians 3:24-28, ESV)
But what about 1 Corinthians 6:9 and 1 Timothy 1:10?
Context is king. We must examine the surrounding passage instead of basing our doctrines on isolated verses.
1 Corinthians 6:8-12 (ESV):
"
But you yourselves wrong and defraud—even your own brothers! Or do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: neither the sexually immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor men who practice homosexuality, nor thieves, nor the greedy, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God. And such were some of you. But you were washed, you were sanctified, you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and by the Spirit of our God. 'All things are lawful for me,' but not all things are helpful. 'All things are lawful for me,' but I will not be dominated by anything."
First off, there is some dispute among scholars and experts on the meaning of the Greek word [
arsenokoitai] rendered in the ESV as "
men who practice homosexuality." The King James Version rendered it as "
abusers of themselves with mankind." The word literally translated is "
man-beds."
Some interpret this word to refer to male prostitutes involved in pagan temple worship, or to pimps, pedophiles, or rapists.
The context is very clear that it refers to something that is harming your fellow Christians, and is listed together with thieves, greedy, and swindlers. Obviously there is more involved here than merely a private monogamous loving relationship between two gay men.
For further research on this Greek word, I refer you to
ReligiousTolerance.org,
Our Spirit, and this
article.
For the sake of argument, lets say this Greek word does refer to all homosexuality. Immediately after Paul listed these sins, he then declares, in
1 Corinthians 6:12, that
"all things are lawful" for Christians, but not all things are beneficial.
He is declaring that none of these things are sin, UNLESS they are not beneficial or are harmful. So that is the key thing to consider:
Does this action harm my neighbor or myself? Is this action beneficial to my neighbor or to myself? 1 Timothy 1:10 (ESV):
"
the sexually immoral, men who practice homosexuality, enslavers, liars, perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to sound doctrine,"
Again, the context shows that this is referring to some action which is harmful to others, in the same category as slave-traders, liars, and perjurers. It would make more sense for this to be male prostitution in temple worship or pedophilia, not monogamous homosexual relationships. Please see what I wrote above regarding the Greek word which is rendered "
homosexuality" in many modern Bibles.
In conclusion, even if all homosexual sex were a sin in God's eyes, homosexuals can freely receive the same forgiveness and mercy from Jesus that all of us other sinners receive:
"I am writing these things to you so that you may not sin. But if anyone does sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous. He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world." (
1 John 2:1-2, ESV)