Nark wrote: "Good boy." (Do I get a bone?)
Now explain to me why the NW translators assume that all copies in all areas were corrupt, as regards the divine name? that none of them represents the original text, since all use kurios, never Yhwh?
Never???? There were some that had the Hebrew Tetagrammaton. However, there was no equivalent of the name in Greek- and shortly after the apostles died, the Trinitarians arose.
Read Romans chapter 10 in any Bible except the NWT; try to understand what point Paul is trying to make, and how the quotation of Joel in v. 13 serves his argument. When you get it, switch to the NWT and see what happens.What did you see "excercis faith" instead of "believe"? "Jehovah" instead of "LORD"? It seems the same to me- just easier to understand.
Hmm.. my point was about "Jehovah".
Joel USED the Divine Name. Since Paul, who was a Jew and spoke Hebrew, used the name- and certainly would not corrupt Joel's words,was referring to it- maybe using "Kurios" instead, since there was no Greek pronounciation of it at that time! My guess is you're implying Jesus WAS Jehovah- and that the name "Jesus" replaced it. Correct?
But here you didn't play the game. Let's break it down. First tell me what function v. 13 (the quotation of Joel) plays in the whole argument. Notice it is introduced by gar, "for, because".
Read Romans chapter 10 in any Bible except the NWT; try to understand what point Paul is trying to make, and how the quotation of Joel in v. 13 serves his argument. When you get it, switch to the NWT and see what happens.What did you see "excercis faith" instead of "believe"? "Jehovah" instead of "LORD"? It seems the same to me- just easier to understand.
You LOST me there, Nark!